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TEST BANK FOR DISCOVERY SERIES INTRODUCTION TO LIFESPAN 1ST EDITION BY RATHUS

 

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Chapter 1: What is Lifespan Development?

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. In ancient times and in the Middle Ages, children often were valued for their contributions to the home.

 

 

 

  1. Behaviorism is the discipline that studies the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional development of humans.

 

 

  1. Negative reinforcers decrease the frequency of behaviors when they are removed.

 

 

  1. In social cognitive theory, the people after whom we pattern our own behavior are termed models.

 

 

  1. Social cognitive theorists focus on people’s mental processes.

 

 

  1. The exosystem involves the interaction of children with beliefs, values, expectations, and lifestyles of their cultural settings.

 

 

 

  1. When learning with other people, children externalize the conversations and explanation that help them gain the necessary skills.

 

 

 

  1. Researchers are continually trying to sort out the extent to which human behavior is the result of nature and of nurture.

 

 

  1. Correlational information can reveal relationships between variables, but it does not show cause and effect.

 

 

 

  1. Experiments are usually undertaken to test a hypothesis.

 

  1. The dependent variable is a variable whose presence is manipulated by the experimenters so that its effects can be determined.

 

 

 

  1. Participants should not be offered information about the results of the study.

 

 

  1. The identities of the participants in a study are to remain confidential.

 

 

  1. A Skinner box uses the reinforcement of water.

 

 

  1. The Skinner box teaches pigeons to learn and alter behavior.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. How long has scientific inquiry into human development existed?
a. Since the Middle Ages c. In the last twenty years
b. A little more than a century d. Since the 1600s

 

 

 

 

  1. In ancient times and in the Middle Ages, children were often viewed as innately evil and ____.
a. family social functions excluded them
b. school was mandatory
c. discipline was harsh
d. free time was often used as a punishment

 

 

 

  1. In the Middle Ages, children could be sent to the monastery against their will because they were ____.
a. legally considered property c. not needed at home
b. considered to be divine d. in need of discipline

 

 

 

  1. In the Middle Ages children who turned 7 years old were expected to work with the adults in the home and field because they ____.
a. had reached legal age c. had reached an age of adulthood
b. had reached puberty d. had reached an age of reason

 

 

 

 

  1. Eddie came into this world without either good or evil. Anything he became was a result of the experiences he had as a child. What is this an example of?
a. the age of reason c. inherent traits
b. tabula rasa d. environmental development

 

 

 

 

  1. Fred developed based on what he experienced in life and learned to behave based on whether his parents approved or disapproved of his actions. Which theorist would agree with this developmental proposal?
a. Locke c. Hall
b. Piaget d. Rousseau

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The twentieth century saw many changes in how children were viewed and treated. They were no longer property or sources of labor. What is one development that prompted a change in how children were viewed during this time?
a. The Industrial Revolution
b. The theories of Locke
c. The founding of child development as an academic discipline
d. The theories of Rousseau

 

 

 

 

  1. Children became more visible in the ____, fostering awareness of childhood as a special time of life.
a. Industrial Revolution c. twentieth century
b. Middle Ages d. age of reason

 

 

 

  1. A child is exhibiting anxious behaviors and the therapist works to reconcile internal conflicts within the child based on early experiences with parents in order to develop more adaptive behaviors. What is the theory the therapist is working with?
a. maturation c. psychosocial development
b. psychosexual development d. behaviorism

 

 

 

 

  1. A theory that sees children as developing through distinct periods of life is called ____.
a. a cognitive theory c. a psychosexual theory
b. a social theory d. a stage theory

 

 

 

  1. According to Freud, internal processes conflict with one another, causing problems with observable behaviors. Which of the following is one of the main issues that causes internal conflict?
a. basic biological drives versus social expectations
b. basic sexual drives versus parent relationships
c. basic aggressive drives versus relationships with same-sex parents
d. basic biological drives versus emotional development

 

 

 

 

  1. Hailey is a one-year-old baby who is hungry. She begins crying and does not stop until she is fed, regardless of what her parents do to soothe her. Which part of Freud’s theory is at work with Hailey?
a. the id c. the superego
b. the ego d. the conscious

 

 

 

 

  1. Freud’s theory includes conflict between parts of the personality. Each part has a function and, according to Freud, there are times when the drive of one is in conflict with the drive of another. One of the functions acts to satisfy and mediate the others. Which one does this?
a. ego c. unconscious
b. superego d. id

 

 

 

 

  1. Adele allowed her baby to nurse until she was two years old. At five years old, Adele’s child refused to give up sucking his thumb. Adele’s mother read about Freudian psychology and learned that the thumb sucking was due to problems during which stage of development?
a. genital c. latency
b. phallic d. oral

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In which psychosexual stage is gratification obtained through control and elimination of waste products?
a. phallic c. oral
b. latency d. anal

 

 

 

  1. Ed is five years-old and has a crush on his mother. He is resentful of the time his father spends with her and competes for her attention. Which stage is Ed in?
a. latency c. anal
b. phallic d. genital

 

 

 

  1. Ned begins to experience drives for sexual gratification with someone of the opposite sex. What psychosexual stage is this?
a. phallic c. genital
b. oral d. latency

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following focuses on how a person’s cultural environment influences his or her development?
a. maturation c. developmental psychology
b. psychosexual development d. stage theory

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of how Freud gathered information for his theories?
a. He gathered information by observing children at different ages.
b. He gathered information by interviewing children of different ages.
c. He gathered information from parents about their children.
d. He gathered information from adult clients about their childhood.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theories would be more of a flexible approach to how early experiences influence development?
a. psychosexual development c. behavioral development
b. psychosocial development d. cognitive development

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following Erikson stages corresponds to Freud’s anal stage?
a. trust vs. mistrust c. initiative vs. guilt
b. autonomy vs. shame and doubt d. industry vs. inferiority

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following psychosexual stages correspond to the identity vs. role diffusion stage of psychosocial development?
a. anal stage c. latency stage
b. phallic stage d. genital stage

 

 

 

  1. Who argued that a scientific approach to development must focus only on observable behavior?
a. Freud c. Watson
b. Erikson d. Skinner

 

 

 

  1. Kali automatically gets up and switches classes in school when she hears the second bell. Which theory describes this behavior?
a. psychosexual development c. classical conditioning
b. operant conditioning d. cognitive development

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a positive reinforcer?
a. Removing the tone when you buckle your seatbelt
b. Allowing you to get out of your room after you clean it
c. Spanking you for not studying for your test
d. Allowing an extra scoop of ice cream for passing the test

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is likely to occur when you remove the bell in school?
a. extinction c. conditioned response
b. reinforcement d. consequence

 

 

 

  1. What typically happens when a negative reinforcer is removed?
a. The frequency of behavior increases.
b. The frequency of behavior decreases.
c. The behavior ceases.
d. The frequency of behavior does not change.

 

 

 

 

  1. What typically happens when a punishment is presented?
a. The unwanted behavior increases. c. The desired behavior decreases.
b. The unwanted behavior decreases. d. The desired behavior increases.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following increases the frequency of a desired behavior?
a. extinction c. negative reinforcer
b. positive reinforcer d. conditioned stimulus

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would increase the resumption of an undesired behavior?
a. removal of the reinforcer c. increasing and decreasing the reinforcer
b. increasing the reinforcer d. decreasing the reinforcer

 

 

 

  1. Mary and Paul are playing house when Paul’s friends come over. Paul quickly stops playing house and gets out his trucks. Why is Paul reacting this way?
a. socialization through classical conditioning
b. socialization through operant conditioning
c. socialization through cognitive learning
d. socialization through adaptation

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists proposed that learning occurs through observing other people?
a. Bandura c. Skinner
b. Erikson d. Piaget

 

 

 

  1. Kali watches her mother vacuum and decides to do it herself. Her mother shows her how. What is her mother doing?
a. adapting c. accommodating
b. assimilating d. modeling

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which theories provides the basis for many educational TV shows?
a. psychosexual c. learning
b. psychosocial d. behaviorist

 

 

 

  1. Tara moved from the country to the city and is learning to adjust to the faster pace. She has started to learn how navigate the different streets. Which Piaget concept is Tara utilizing?
a. assimilation c. accommodation
b. adaptation d. equilibration

 

 

 

 

  1. David is a two year-old who is trying to get the cat to play with her like the dog does. She starts calling “doggie” and runs after the cat. Which of Piaget’s concepts is she using?
a. accommodation c. assimilation
b. equilibration d. adaptation

 

 

 

 

  1. Which theorist do teachers follow when they actively engage children in solving problems?
a. Bandura c. Piaget
b. Lorenz d. Skinner

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theories emphasizes learning by watching others?
a. classical conditioning c. cognitive-developmental
b. social cognitive d. biological

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists would have been most interested in a child’s mental processes when answering a question?
a. Bandura c. Lorenz
b. Freud d. Piaget

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a mental structure responsible for helping a child determine how to act in a restaurant?
a. scheme c. heuristic
b. adaptation d. pattern

 

 

 

 

  1. As infants begin to get teeth, they are introduced to chewable foods and they must add them to their food scheme. Which Piaget concept does this portray?
a. adaptation c. accommodation
b. assimilation d. equilibration

 

 

 

  1. When teachers use Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following do they practice?
a. They provide instruction appropriate for the current development stage and encourage the child to move on to the next level.
b. They provide instruction appropriate for the current development stage and encourage the child to remain at that level until they achieve complete mastery.
c. They provide instruction appropriate for the next development stage to encourage the child to move on to the next level.
d. They provide instruction appropriate for the next development stage and push them to try harder.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is one criticism of Piaget?
a. Many cognitive skills develop in distinct stages.
b. Piaget may have overestimated the ages when children are capable of certain tasks.
c. Piaget may have ignored proper ages for certain tasks.
d. Many cognitive skills develop gradually.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following settings utilizes Piaget’s work to the highest degree?
a. educational c. residential
b. correctional d. clinical

 

 

 

  1. During which of the following stages would a child begin to adopt the viewpoint of others?
a. sensorimotor c. concrete operational
b. preoperational d. formal operational

 

 

 

 

  1. During which of the following stages would a child acquire the basics of language?
a. sensorimotor c. concrete operational
b. preoperational d. formal operational

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following areas would be concerned with how instinctive survival occurs?
a. Ecology c. Physiology
b. Ethology d. Biology

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would involve a child interacting with the zoo representative on a field trip?
a. microsystem c. exosystem
b. mesosystem d. macrosystem

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following systems would include programs to help mothers with infants?
a. microsystem c. exosystem
b. mesosystem d. macrosystem

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following systems would be in place as a child negotiates with her mother over her allowance?
a. microsystem c. exosystem
b. mesosystem d. macrosystem

 

 

 

 

  1. What are sudden changes in genetic material that provide differences from parents?
a. reflexes c. fixed action patterns
b. mutations d. instinctive patterns

 

 

 

  1. Homing pigeons are said to be able to always find their way home based on their instincts. Which of the following concepts explains this?
a. mutations c. ecology
b. ethology d. fixed action patterns

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following seems to be connected with feelings of self-confidence, high activity, levels and aggressiveness?
a. mutations c. testosterone
b. reflexes d. estrogen

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following has been implicated in human behavior based on research into the biological perspective?
a. specificity c. instincts
b. rapid mutations d. androgyny

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists proposed the sociocultural theory?
a. Piaget c. Bandura
b. Vygotsky d. Bronfenbrenner

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following refers to a range of tasks that a child can carry out with the help of someone who is more skilled?
a. scaffolding c. zone of proximal development
b. ethology d. zone of natural development

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would concern Vygotsky?
a. Karen is conditioned to respond to the school bell.
b. Karen can distinguish between cake and cupcakes.
c. Karen learns by watching her mother.
d. Karen learns from interacting with her parents and teachers.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be Vygotsky’s focus?
a. A child’s brain capacity c. A child’s genetic makeup
b. A child’s biological age d. A child’s social interactions

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a temporary skeletal structure that enables workers to fabricate a building or other more permanent structure?
a. zone of proximal development c. scaffolding
b. maturation d. fixed action patterns

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be of most interest to a biological theorist?
a. A child’s interaction with parents c. A child’s genetic makeup
b. A child’s cultural background d. A child’s education

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be of interest to biological theorists?
a. language development c. personality development
b. social development d. cultural development

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is defined as the processes within an organism that guide it to develop according to its genetic code?
a. biology c. nurture
b. nature d. instinct

 

 

 

  1. Whose theory is the most discontinuous?
a. Erikson c. Bronfenbrenner
b. Vygotsky d. Piaget

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of Locke’s theory?
a. Children are born evil.
b. Children are born good.
c. Children are born with inherent knowledge.
d. Children are born with nothing.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of the naturalistic-observation method?
a. Watching children play c. Asking children what they like to play
b. Creating a game for children to play d. Asking children about their play history

 

 

 

 

  1. A scientist decides to see how many cars use the far parking lot in the early morning. He sits inside where he can see the parking lot and counts cars. Which type of research is he using?
a. naturalistic-observation c. experiment
b. case study d. survey

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a carefully drawn biography of the life of an individual?
a. naturalistic observation c. standardized test
b. case study d. survey

 

 

 

  1. A researcher wants to look at a few children using a method where he can gather a lot of information on what has happened in their lives so far. Which method should he use?
a. naturalistic-observation c. correlation
b. case study d. standardized test

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following methods is often used in schools when children are all tested at the same time on the same subject?
a. naturalistic observation c. standardized test
b. case study d. questionnaire

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following pertains to a number that varies between +1.00 and -1.00?
a. standardized test c. positive correlation
b. correlation coefficient d. dependent variable

 

 

 

  1. Sam found that as the number of churches in town went up, the number of bars went down. Which of the following can be said about this information?
a. There is a positive correlation c. There is a negative correlation
b. There is no correlation d. There is a correlation coefficient

 

 

 

  1. Mike has found that the more he studies, the higher his test scores are. Which type of correlation is this?
a. correlation coefficient c. positive correlation
b. zero correlation d. negative correlation

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a proposition to be tested?
a. correlation coefficient c. hypothesis
b. experiment d. variable

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the basis for what an experiment seeks to do?
a. correlation coefficient c. variable
b. hypothesis d. selection factor

 

 

 

 

  1. A researcher proposes that student performance is affected by temperature. What is this called?
a. An experiment c. A hypothesis
b. A selection factor d. A dependent variable

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the preferred method for investigating cause and effect?
a. correlational study c. experiment
b. case study d. naturalistic observation

 

 

 

 

  1. In a study to determine whether temperature affects test performance, what is the test performance?
a. dependent variable c. correlation coefficient
b. independent variable d. experimental group

 

 

 

 

  1. Addie is assigned to a group that does not receive the treatment being studied. What is her part in this experiment?
a. She is part of an experimental group. c. She is part of a control group.
b. She is part of the dependent variable. d. She is part of the treatment group.

 

 

 

 

  1. Matt created a study that looked at how children adjusted to divorce at the ages of 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, and 13. Which type of research is this?
a. correlational c. observational
b. experimental d. longitudinal

 

 

 

 

  1. Steve decides to do a study on intelligence in math based on age. He takes three groups of children in three different ages and studies them at the same time. Which type of research is he conducting?
a. experimental c. cross-sequential
b. observational d. longitudinal

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is required from each participant in a research study?
a. release of liability during the study c. obedience during the study
b. consent to participate in the study d. commitment for the entire study

 

 

 

 

  1. The Skinner box trains a rat based on which of the following?
a. classic conditioning c. social learning
b. observational learning d. operant conditioning

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What did the Skinner box demonstrate?
a. The rat’s ability to learn its way around a maze.
b. The rat’s ability to get out of a box.
c. The rat’s ability to find food.
d. The rat’s ability to learn how to get its water.

 

 

 

 

  1. What did Skinner’s Pigeon box show?
a. Behavior could be learned and altered c. Behavior remains consistent
b. Behavior could be learned d. Behavior could be altered

 

 

 

  1. What did Skinner determine based on the Skinner box?
a. We are shaped by free will.
b. We are shaped by our environment.
c. We are shaped by actions and free will not consequences.
d. We are shaped by actions and consequences not free will.

 

 

 

 

  1. What alters the behavior of the pigeons in the Skinner box?
a. reinforcements c. punishments
b. stimuli d. consequences

 

 

 

  1. Which ethical guideline did Watson’s experiment with Little Albert violate?
a. Participants may withdraw from the study at any time, for any reason.
b. Participants must provide voluntary consent to participate in the study.
c. Participants should be offered information about the results of the study.
d. Researchers are not to use methods that may do physical or psychological harm.

 

 

 

 

  1. Why was Watson’s research with Albert controversial?
a. The baby did not like bunnies. c. The baby was unsupervised.
b. The baby was clearly in distress. d. The baby was bribed with candy.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be the likely IRB determination of Watson’s experiment with Albert?
a. The IRB would allow it as it was conducted.
b. The IRB would allow it as long as the mother was present.
c. The IRB would allow the rat but not the bunny.
d. The IRB would not allow the experiment.

 

 

 

  1. Why are ethical guidelines valuable?
a. They reduce experiment liability.
b. They limit the amount of research.
c. They obligate participants to complete the experiment.
d. They protect the well-being of the participants involved.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. How does Freud’s phallic stage compare with Erikson’s initiative vs. guilt stage? Describe one similarity and one difference.

 

 

  1. Explain the series of events that occurs when you use positive reinforcement in an effort to get your child to study more?

 

 

 

  1. List three of the characteristics of the concrete operational stage and give an example of each.

 

 

  1. List the systems of Bronfenbrenner ecological perspective and give an example of each.

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between a dependent variable and an independent variable.

 

 

  1. Define cross-sequential research and discuss its benefits.

 

 

 

  1. What are ethical standards intended to accomplish?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 2: Beginnings

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure found within the nuclei of cells.

 

 

 

 

  1. The field of biology that studies heredity is called genetics.

 

 

  1. Each member of a pair of genes is termed a trait.

 

 

  1. Factorial problems stem from the interaction of heredity and environmental factors.

 

 

  1. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a dominant gene.

 

 

  1. Genotypes are the actual sets of traits we exhibit that reflect both genetic and environmental influences.

 

 

  1. The Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart studied DZ twins reared in separate households.

 

 

 

  1. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus.

 

 

  1. Endometriosis has become fairly common among women who delay childbearing.

 

 

  1. Endometriosis can obstruct the fallopian tubes, where conception normally takes place.

 

 

  1. Surrogate mothers bring babies to term through other women who are fertile.

 

 

  1. Postimplantation genetic diagnosis was developed to detect genetic disorders, but it also reveals the sex of the embryo.

 

 

 

  1. Growth of the organ systems near the spine occurs earlier than growth of the extremities.

 

 

  1. At approximately 21 days after implantation, three ridges appear in the embryo and fold to compose the neural tube, from which the nervous system will develop.

 

 

 

  1. The mother usually feels the first fetal movements in the middle of the fourth month.

 

 

  1. The fetus will probably not contract syphilis if an infected mother is treated with antibiotics before the fourth month of pregnancy.

 

 

  1. Rh incompatibility occurs when a woman who does not have this factor – and is thus Rh positive – is carrying an Rh-negative fetus.

 

 

 

  1. Vitamins have been shown to be completely safe for pregnant women to take.

 

 

 

  1. During transition, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, and the head of the fetus begins to move into the vagina.

 

 

 

  1. Cuban Americans have the lowest child mortality rate.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. According to Figure 2.1 in the text, which of the following is the smallest unit?
a. cell c. nucleus
b. chromosome d. DNA

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following utilizes partnering to create a DNA strand?
a. mitosis c. ovulation
b. meiosis d. reduction division

 

 

 

 

  1. How can a genetic code be altered?
a. Through mitosis c. Through mutation
b. Through meiosis d. Through reduction division

 

 

 

  1. David and Sharon just had a baby boy. Sharon jokes that David arranged a boy on purpose. The doctor laughs, and then explains that which of the following is ultimately responsible for the baby boy’s gender?
a. The 22nd pair of autosomes c. The 23rd pair of chromosomes
b. The 46 pairs of chromosomes d. The 23 pairs of autosomes

 

 

 

 

  1. Lisa is writing a research paper on twins and in the research process, finds out that which of the following women would be most likely to have twins?
a. A 25-year-old woman with twin cousins
b. A 40 year-old woman with a mother who was a twin
c. A 30-year-old woman with a father who was a twin
d. A 35-year-old woman thinking about taking fertility drugs

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Kali and Kelly are identical twins. What caused this?
a. A single zygote split into two.
b. A single zygote was fertilized twice.
c. Two separate zygotes were fertilized by the same sperm.
d. Two separate zygotes were fertilized at two separate times within the same month.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of a dominant trait?
a. blonde hair c. red hair
b. blue eyes d. brown eyes

 

 

 

  1. If one parent has brown eyes, and the child has a recessive allele for blue eyes from both parents, what is likely to happen?
a. The child will have brown eyes.
b. The child will have green eyes.
c. The child will have blue eyes.
d. The child will have either brown eyes or blue eyes.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a recessive trait?
a. Curly hair c. Lactose tolerance
b. Type A blood d. Lack of dimples

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following reflects an abnormality somewhere in the first 22 pairs of autosomes?
a. Klinefelter syndrome c. Sex-linked syndrome
b. Turner syndrome d. Down syndrome

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following causes Down’s syndrome?
a. The 46 chromosomes c. An excess 23rd chromosome
b. An excess 21st chromosome d. The 23rd chromosome

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a disease that would occur through a dominant gene?
a. Phenylketonuria c. Sickle-cell anemia
b. Huntington’s disease d. Tay-Sachs disease

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following individuals is most likely to have sickle-cell anemia?
a. A Jewish child c. A White child
b. An African American adult d. A Latin American adult

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would result in mental retardation after an excess of an amino acid?
a. Phenylketonuria c. Sickle-cell anemia
b. Huntington’s disease d. Tay-Sachs disease

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following genetic disorders results in respiratory complications and death in young adulthood?
a. Tay-Sachs disease c. Muscular dystrophy
b. Cystic fibrosis d. Hemophilia

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following individuals has the greatest chance of contracting a sex-linked genetic abnormality?
a. A male with a mother with muscular dystrophy
b. A female with a mother with muscular dystrophy
c. A male with a father with muscular dystrophy
d. A female with a father with muscular dystrophy

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a procedure that would be used on a pregnant woman over 40-years-old?
a. genetic counseling c. sonogram
b. amniocentesis d. ultrasound

 

 

 

 

  1. Angela and Greg would like to know the gender of their baby, but they want to do so as safely as possible. Which of the following procedures would you recommend?
a. amniocentesis c. ultrasound
b. CVS d. genetic counseling

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is used sparingly as it carries the greatest risk of miscarriage?
a. CVS c. amniocentesis
b. ultrasound d. early amniocentesis

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following genetic diseases would not be revealed with a parental blood test before pregnancy?
a. Tay-Sachs disease c. Cystic fibrosis
b. Huntington’s disease d. Sickle-cell anemia

 

 

 

  1. Pamela’s father was a calm, quiet man. Pamela tends to be calm and quiet as well,  unless she is playing soccer, her favorite sport. What does her aggressiveness on the field indicate?
a. The effects of her chromosomes c. The effects of her phenotypes
b. The effects of her genotypes d. The effects of her environment

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following people would Ann be closest to genetically?
a. her grandmother c. her aunt
b. her brother d. her cousin

 

 

 

  1. Paul and Peter seem identical in almost every way. They have the same taste in music. They have the same facial expressions and features. They drive the same car, and they work in the same professional field. Since they did not grow up together, what explanation is there for this?
a. There is an environmental basis for their behaviors.
b. They are dizygotic twins.
c. They have a strong instinctive connection.
d. There is a strong genetic basis for their behaviors.

 

 

 

 

  1. Who of the following would be more likely to share autism?
a. male siblings c. DZ twins
b. female siblings d. MZ twins

 

 

 

 

  1. Nancy and Sarah were separated at birth and raised in separate households. They did not have contact with each other and were not aware that they were twins. Researchers studied them to see if there were any similarities in their behaviors and traits. What is this type of research called?
a. twin studies c. kinship studies
b. trait studies d. adoption studies

 

 

 

 

  1. How do sperm reach the ovum?
a. They travel randomly through the cervix and uterus to the fallopian tube with the released ovum.
b. They follow the scent of released chemicals through the cervix to the fallopian tube containing a released ovum.
c. They follow the scent of released chemicals through the fallopian tube to the cervix where the ovum has been released.
d. They travel randomly through the fallopian tube to the cervix where the ovum has been released.

 

 

 

 

  1. How many sperm cells are necessary to fertilize an ovum?
a. 1 c. 1,000
b. 100 d. 1,000,000

 

 

 

  1. What concept describes the time in which the sperm penetrates the ovum and unites with it?
a. conception c. endometrium
b. fertility d. implantation

 

 

m

 

  1. When are ova present in the female body?
a. At birth c. During puberty
b. In childhood before puberty d. During menstruation

 

 

 

  1. What is released during menstruation?
a. The unfertilized egg and the lining of the fallopian tube
b. The unfertilized egg and the cilia
c. The unfertilized egg and the lining of the ovaries
d. The unfertilized egg and the lining of the uterus

 

 

 

  1. What is one explanation for why more boys than girls are conceived?
a. The X sex chromosome swims faster than the Y sex chromosome.
b. The Y sex chromosome swims faster than the X sex chromosome.
c. There are more X sex chromosomes than Y sex chromosomes.
d. There are more Y sex chromosomes than X sex chromosomes.

 

 

 

  1. How do sperm cells develop?
a. Through meiosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 chromosomes.
b. Through meiosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 pairs of chromosomes.
c. Through mitosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 chromosomes.
d. Through mitosis, with the X sex chromosomes splitting from the Y sex chromosomes to form 23 pairs of chromosomes.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an obstacle sperm face in attempting to reach the ovum?
a. Only a few viable sperm are ejaculated.
b. Vaginal acidity kills many sperm.
c. Most sperm travel randomly and do not go in the right direction.
d. The cilia are designed to keep out foreign objects.

 

 

 

 

  1. Why does only one sperm enter the ova?
a. A chemical is released to prevent others from entering.
b. More than one sperm enter the ova but do not fertilize the egg.
c. The ova only has room for one sperm.
d. The chemical used to attract sperm ceases once one sperm enters the ova.

 

 

 

  1. Adam and Maria have been trying to get pregnant for eight months. They are in your office and wonder when they will be able to go through infertility procedures. What do you advise?
a. Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for six months.
b. Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for eight months.
c. Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for ten months.
d. Infertility is normally diagnosed after trying for twelve months.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be one of the likeliest reasons for infertility in men?
a. diabetes c. medication
b. sexually transmitted infection d. low sperm count

 

 

 

  1. Daniel and Sasha are very active and healthy. They eat right and exercise daily. Daniel often engages in long distance runs and then takes a hot bath before he and Sasha have sexual intercourse. When they visit a specialist about their inability to conceive, what is one issue that the physician will likely point out?
a. The warm water from the bath would help Sarah conceive.
b. Sarah is probably exercising too much.
c. David’s runs could be causing issues with conception.
d. David needs to take a shower instead.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is one reason that fertility drugs can cause multiple births?
a. The ovum splits during conception.
b. Ovulation permits ovum to remain viable for longer periods of time.
c. The ovum splits after conception.
d. Ovulation occurs more than once, ripening more than one ovum.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a means of fertilizing the ovum by injecting larger amounts of sperm into the uterus?
a. motility c. in vitro fertilization
b. artificial insemination d. donor in vitro fertilization

 

 

 

  1. What procedure is actually the mode that gave rise to the phrase “test tube babies”?
a. in vitro fertilization c. artificial insemination
b. surrogate mothers d. adoption

 

 

 

  1. What occurs when ova are produced by someone other than the intended mother?
a. in vitro fertilization c. surrogacy
b. donor IVF d. artificial insemination

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following helps couples select the gender of the child?
a. in vitro fertilization c. motility
b. donor IVF d. preimplantation genetic diagnosis

 

 

 

 

  1. How long is a normal gestation period?
a. 260 days c. 280 days
b. 270 days d. 290 days

 

 

 

 

  1. Which stage occurs around the third through eighth weeks of pregnancy?
a. gestation stage c. embryonic stage
b. germinal stage d. fetal stage

 

 

 

  1. Where do cells begin to separate into groups that will eventually become different structures?
a. The embryonic disk c. The trophoblast
b. The blastocyst d. The zygote

 

 

 

  1. Why does the blastocyst implant on the uterine wall?
a. To maintain warmth c. To create the neural tube
b. To form the zygote d. To provide nourishment

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following forms the digestive and respiratory systems in the embryonic stage?
a. ectoderm c. endoderm
b. neural tube d. mesoderm

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following develops into the reproductive system?
a. ectoderm c. neural tube
b. endoderm d. mesoderm

 

 

 

  1. At what point in development will an embryo begin to “look” like an infant?
a. one month c. three months
b. two months d. four months

 

 

 

  1. At what point in embryonic development would a sonographer be able to tell the sex of an infant?
a. one month c. three months
b. two months d. four months

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following acts as a filter for food and oxygen for the fetus?
a. amniotic sac c. placenta
b. amniotic fluid d. uterus

 

 

 

 

  1. How is alcohol able to affect the fetus?
a. The mother and fetus share circulatory systems.
b. The mother transmits what she ingests through the uterine wall.
c. The mother and fetus share digestive systems.
d. The mother transmits what she ingests through the placenta.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following normally occurs by the end of the first trimester?
a. thumb sucking c. opening and shutting eyes
b. gender identity d. waking and sleeping periods

 

 

 

  1. Kesha is in the 32nd week of her pregnancy and there are indications that she might deliver early. Kesha is worried that the baby will have potentially fatal distress if she is born prematurely. What would you tell her?
a. Chances of survival are nearly 60%. c. Chances of survival are nearly 80%.
b. Chances of survival are nearly 70%. d. Chances of survival are nearly 90%.

 

 

 

 

  1. Kali swears her baby can hear her voice and responds with kicks. She backs this up with information from a study by Sontag and Richards. What is the evidence she is citing?
a. Infants kicking while the mother is listening to music
b. Infants moving at the sound of a bell
c. Infants calming down to the music mom likes
d. Infants coming out of the womb with an affinity for certain music

 

 

 

  1. According to researchers, what is one reason that fetuses can discriminate pitch?
a. The fetus looks toward the sound. c. The fetus has a change in heart rate.
b. The fetus wakes up. d. The fetus assumes a listening stance.

 

 

 

  1. Yolanda is in her ninth month of pregnancy and is worried because she is not feeling the baby move around quite as much as before. What advice would you give her?
a. The space is more cramped, so activity is reduced.
b. The fetus is sleeping more.
c. The fetus is getting ready to enter the birth canal.
d. The fetus is potentially in trouble and emergency measures should be taken.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is defined as any environmental agent that can harm the embryo or fetus?
a. syphilis c. rubella
b. teratogen d. deficiency

 

 

  1. At which point is the heart past the vulnerable point of developing an abnormality from a teratogen?
a. six weeks c. eight weeks
b. seven weeks d. nine weeks

 

 

 

 

  1. When do eyes develop beyond the critical period for major abnormal development from teratogens?
a. seven weeks c. nine weeks
b. eight weeks d. ten weeks

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following refers to a condition that is present at birth and results from genetic or chromosomal abnormalities?
a. congenital c. teratogenic
b. phenotypical d. dysfunctional

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is most known to cripple the body’s immune system?
a. syphilis c. rubella
b. HIV/AIDS d. toxemia

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure?
a. rubella c. syphilis
b. toxemia d. HIV/AIDS

 

 

 

  1. When does Rh incompatibility happen?
a. When the mother is Rh negative and carries an Rh negative fetus.
b. When the mother is Rh positive and carries an Rh negative fetus.
c. When the mother is Rh negative and carries an Rh positive fetus.
d. When the mother is Rh positive and carries an Rh positive fetus.

 

 

 

  1. What unsafe substance was prescribed in the mid-1900s to help prevent miscarriage?
a. progestin c. thalidomide
b. diethylstilbestrol d. aspirin

 

 

 

  1. What substance has been linked to toxemia?
a. cocaine c. heroin
b. marijuana d. alcohol

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following causes FAS?
a. alcohol c. cocaine
b. caffeine d. heroin

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following most decreases the flow of oxygen to the fetus?
a. cocaine c. alcohol
b. marijuana d. cigarettes

 

 

 

  1. What describes the most accurate relationship between parental age and conception?
a. The younger the female is, the better
b. The older the female is, the better
c. It does not matter what age the male is.
d. Both older males and females present problems.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply

REF:   2.2 Prenatal Development, Textbook

OBJ:   LO19: Discuss the risks associated with the age of the parents to the embryo and fetus

MSC:  TYPE: Difficult

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an increased risk for children born to men over 40?
a. premature baby c. FAS
b. autism d. physical deformities

 

 

 

  1. What is the likelihood that a child born in China will die during the first year as compared to a child born in Italy?
a. Four times more likely c. Six times more likely
b. Four times less likely d. Six times less likely

 

 

 

 

  1. What is most likely indicated by a mucus discharge in the last month of pregnancy?
a. The plug protecting the cervix has dislodged.
b. The amniotic sac has burst.
c. The end of the first stage of childbirth.
d. Prostaglandins are being released.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is used to widen the vaginal opening?
a. transition c. C-section
b. episiotomy d. local anesthetic

 

 

 

  1. What is the primary event during transition?
a. Contractions begin.
b. The cervix begins to dilate.
c. The baby’s head crowns.
d. The baby’s head begins to move into the vagina.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following has the most bearing on whether or not an episiotomy is performed?
a. The size of the infant’s shoulders c. The condition of the mother
b. The weight of the infant d. The physician’s normal practice

 

 

m

 

  1. Which of the following would be used to numb a mother’s external genitals?
a. A general anesthetic pudendal block c. A general anesthetic epidural block
b. A local anesthetic pudendal block d. A local anesthetic epidural block

 

 

 

  1. Which form of childbirth most utilizes a coach?
a. anesthesia c. Lamaze
b. natural d. cesarean

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the rate of C-section births in the United States?
a. Three in every 10 c. Five in every 10
b. Four in every 10 d. Six in every 10

 

 

um

 

  1. At what point is a baby no longer considered preterm?
a. 36 weeks c. 38 weeks
b. 37 weeks d. 39 weeks

 

 

 

 

  1. When a baby does not receive enough oxygen in utero to develop properly, the resulting condition is called ____.
a. lanugo c. breech
b. hypoxia d. aphasia

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is considered a normal birth weight?
a. three pounds c. five pounds
b. four pounds d. six pounds

 

 

 

  1. What is the term for the fine hair associated with preterm birth?
a. vernix c. neonate
b. lanugo d. anoxia

 

 

 

  1. Which country is the safest place to give birth?
a. United States c. Ireland
b. England d. Spain

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following increases the maternal mortality rate in the United States?
a. large urban populations c. large immigrant populations
b. large rural populations d. large older populations

 

 

 

 

  1. Why is an ultrasound used in high risk pregnancies?
a. To check for gender c. To check for height and weight
b. To check for abnormalities d. To check for age

 

 

 

 

  1. What information does the ultrasound provide in a high-risk pregnancy?
a. Diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities
b. Diagnosis of Down Syndrome
c. Estimated need for additional screening
d. The extent of abnormalities

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following can be determined from the ultrasound?
a. FAS c. Huntington’s disease
b. height d. paternity

 

 

 

  1. According to Hur, 2005; Johnson et al., 2004; McCrae et al., 2000, which of the following is true?
a. MZ twins resemble one another more strongly than DZ twins in intelligence and personality traits.
b. MZ twins resemble one another less strongly than DZ twins in intelligence and personality traits.
c. DZ twins are more likely to share psychological disorders than MZ twins.
d. DZ twins are more likely to be similar in height.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of DNA?
a. phosphates c. bases
b. androgens d. androgens

 

 

 

  1. What did Bouchard find in his study?
a. Identical twins varied greatly in behaviors.
b. Identical twins varied greatly in personality traits.
c. The twins were identical in behaviors.
d. The twins were very similar in personality traits.

 

 

 

 

  1. According to your online video resources, which of the following is a common reason for infertility?
a. genetic abnormalities c. low sperm count
b. stress d. irregular ovulation

 

 

 

 

  1. Which part of the brain was implicated in infertility by Dr. Berga due to stress?
a. amygdala c. hypothalamus
b. basal ganglia d. frontal cortex

 

 

 

 

  1. According to Signorello & McLaughlin, 2004, research findings on caffeine’s effects on the developing fetus ____.
a. show that caffeine consumption is harmful in the first trimester
b. have been inconsistent
c. show that caffeine consumption has no adverse effects on the fetus
d. illustrate the benefits of caffeine for both mother and fetus

 

 

 

 

  1. According to Krueger et al., 2004; Lecanuet et al., 2005, what is one basis for the development of attachment to the mother in the womb?
a. fetal learning c. socioeconomic status
b. good nutrition d. stable family environment

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. What is the cause of Turner syndrome and what are two characteristics of the syndrome?

 

 

  1. Describe Huntington’s Disease and identify three symptoms.

 

 

 

  1. Describe an ultrasound and its functionality.

 

 

 

  1. Differentiate between twin studies and adoption studies.

 

 

  1. How do fertility drugs act to create multiple births?

 

 

 

  1. List the three periods of prenatal development and provide the ages related to each.

 

 

 

  1. What is the ectoderm and why is it important?

 

 

  1. Define teratogens and give two examples.

 

 

  1. Why do some physicians do an episiotomy?

 

 

 

  1. Name three reasons the maternal mortality rate in the United States is higher than it should be.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 3: Infancy

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. About one in five new mothers suffers from postpartum depression.

 

 

  1. The Apgar scale measures appearance, pulse, activity level, respiratory effort, and hearing.

 

 

  1. In 1890, William James, a founder of modern psychology, accurately characterized a neonate’s perception of the world “as one great blooming, buzzing confusion.”

 

 

  1. Neonates are able to learn through classical conditioning.

 

 

 

  1. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the second leading cause of death for infants.

 

 

 

  1. The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur during prenatal development.

 

 

  1. Infants of the Hopi tribe are routinely strapped to cradleboards until one year of age, which greatly retards their motor development because this deprives their brain of appropriate motor input.

 

 

 

  1. Infants can perceive differences between highly similar speech sounds by the age of one month, as evidenced by sensitization to the sounds “marana” and “marala.”

 

 

  1. According to Piaget’s A-not-B theory, a child who repeatedly retrieves a toy from the closet and then watches his mother place the toy in a bag will still look for the toy in the closet.

 

 

 

  1. Neonates only hours old have been found to imitate adults who open their mouths or stick out their tongues.

 

 

 

  1. Crying is a primitive form of language.

 

 

  1. In general, children’s expressive vocabulary outpaces their receptive vocabulary in development.

 

 

 

  1. Children with an expressive style of speech use more pronouns and many words involved in social routines, such as stop, more, and all gone.

 

 

  1. Jolene sends a text to her mother: “Be home dinnertime.” This type of language usage illustrates telegraphic speech.

 

 

 

  1. People with Broca’s aphasia speak freely and with proper syntax but have trouble understanding speech and finding the words to express themselves.

 

 

 

  1. Destiny drops off her eighteen-month-old daughter Ivy at daycare. When Destiny leaves, Ivy is not upset and plays by herself in a corner. Upon return, Ivy is ambivalent to her mother’s reappearance. According to Mary Ainsworth, Ivy is displaying the classical signs of secure attachment.

 

 

 

  1. Ana is the mother of an autistic girl, Zoyla. Every morning, Ana leaves out an orange and a bowl of cereal for Zoyla. One morning, when Ana forgets to set out an orange, Zoyla screams in a state of panic. Zoyla is demonstrating preservation of sameness.

 

 

 

  1. Emotional regulation refers to the ways in which children look to their parents for reassurance in new situations.

 

 

  1. The term “goodness of fit” describes how well a child’s perceived reality matches with the actual world.

 

 

  1. Margaret Mahler, a psychoanalyst, proposed that development of the self-concept comes about through a process of separation–individuation.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. According to the American Psychiatric Association, what do approximately 70% of new mothers experience during the postpartum period?
a. “baby blues” c. “mommy memory loss”
b. “nesting instinct” d. “nurture conflict”

 

 

 

  1. Three weeks after delivering a healthy baby boy, Miriam’s husband notices that she isn’t sleeping at night, even when the baby is sleeping; she also becomes easily agitated and appears to be speaking with someone even when no one else is in the room with her. Miriam is likely suffering from postpartum ____.
a. depression c. mania
b. psychosis d. hyperinsomnia

 

 

 

  1. Andrea returns home two days after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. On her first night home, she cannot sleep when the baby is sleeping, she feels very irritable, she cannot concentrate on the magazine article she is trying to read, and she worries incessantly that the baby has stopped breathing. She may be suffering from postpartum ____.
a. depression c. mania
b. psychosis d. hyperinsomnia

 

 

 

 

 

  1. According to researchers, what is a key trigger of postpartum mood disorders?
a. societal pressures c. hormonal changes
b. traumatic birthing experience d. lack of family support

 

 

 

  1. What was a critique of Klaus and Kennell’s (1970s) study on mother-infant bonding?
a. Mothers could request which group they wished to participate in (extended versus limited contact), biasing the samples.
b. Coerced and extended separation from their babies caused many mothers to suffer significant emotional distress.
c. Mothers with extended contact were also more likely to breast feed their babies, but the benefits of breast milk were unaccounted for.
d. The benefits of extended contact were not separated from the benefits of additional hospital staff support.

 

 

 

 

  1. How are the findings of Klaus and Kennell’s (1970s) mother-infant bonding study viewed today?
a. Contemporary views are in agreement; for bonding to be successful it must happen frequently and early on.
b. Contemporary views are in agreement; bonding can be successful even if it happens later in infancy
c. Contemporary views are in disagreement; for bonding to be successful it must happen frequently and early on
d. Contemporary views are in disagreement; bonding can be successful even if it happens later in infancy

 

 

 

 

  1. Which scale measures a newborn’s health by assessing appearance, pulse, grimace, activity level, and respiratory effort?
a. Basso, Beattie, and Bresnahan scale
b. Apgar scale
c. Glasgow Neonate scale
d. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

 

 

 

  1. Which scale measures a newborn’s motor behavior, response to stress, adaptive behavior, and control over physiological state?
a. Basso, Beattie, and Bresnahan scale
b. Apgar scale
c. Glasgow Neonate scale
d. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

 

 

 

  1. Shortly after giving birth to a baby girl, Nala overhears the pediatrician comment that the newborn has an Apgar score of 2. What does this indicate?
a. The baby has received a perfect Apgar score and is in good health.
b. Although not a perfect Apgar score, the baby’s health indicators are within normal range.
c. The baby is experiencing moderate health problems and should be closely monitored.
d. The baby’s is in critical condition and immediate medical attention is required.

 

 

 

 

  1. An unlearned, stereotypical response to a stimulus is referred to as ____.
a. habit c. reflex
b. instinct d. response

 

 

 

  1. Deirdra strokes the cheek of her newborn daughter with her fingers; the baby responds with a normal rooting reflex by ____.
a. bending her neck forward
b. arching her neck back
c. turning her head away from her mother’s fingers
d. turning her head towards her mother’s fingers

 

 

 

  1. Which is an accurate statement regarding neonatal reflexes?
a. Reflexes are the simplest motor activities displayed by neonates.
b. Reflexes are the most complicated motor activities displayed by neonates.
c. Most neonatal reflexes are exhibited one to two months after birth.
d. Most neonatal reflexes disappear shortly after the baby’s first birthday.

 

 

 

  1. Tina repositions her newborn son so that she can change his diaper. He suddenly arches his back and flings his arms and legs out before bringing them back towards his chest. Which reflex is Tina’s son displaying?
a. Moro reflex c. Apgar reflex
b. Babinski reflex d. Sears reflex

 

 

 

 

  1. Carl strokes the underside of his newborn daughter’s foot. She responds by fanning out her toes. Which reflex is Carl’s daughter displaying?
a. Moro reflex c. Apgar reflex
b. Babinski reflex d. Sears reflex

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Tobias tests the stepping reflex of newborn baby Petra and observes that Petra remains on her tip-toes. What does this indicate?
a. Petra is likely a full-term baby. c. Petra is at least five months old.
b. Petra is likely a pre-term baby. d. Petra is not older than one month.

 

 

 

 

  1. Newborn baby Sasha does not display the grasping reflex. What may this indicate about Sasha’s birth?
a. Sasha was likely born via cesarean section.
b. Anesthetics were likely given to Sasha’s mother during childbirth.
c. Sasha likely had a nuchal cord (cord wrapped around her neck).
d. Sasha likely had difficulty breathing immediately after birth.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which neonatal reflex is characterized by turning the head to one side, extending the arm and leg on that side, and flexing the limbs on the opposite side?
a. cervical-lumbar reflex c. palmer reflex
b. patellar reflex d. tonic-neck reflex

 

 

 

  1. What is true of the neonate’s vision?
a. Neonates are farsighted.
b. Neonates prefer stationary objects over moving objects.
c. Neonates show little visual accommodation.
d. Neonatal convergence occurs about two weeks after birth.

 

 

 

 

  1. To show her newborn baby brother her new toy bunny, Candace dangles the toy above his face. At what distance from her brother’s face would Candace have to hold the toy bunny for her brother to clearly focus on the toy?
a. 2-3 inches c. 5-7 inches
b. 3-5 inches d. 7-9 inches

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the typical visual response of newborn babies when placed in complete darkness?
a. They close their eyes tightly.
b. Their frequency of blinking increases.
c. They open their eyes wide and search around.
d. They roll their eyes upward.

 

 

 

  1. What is true of neonatal hearing?
a. Neonates tend to prefer the voices of their mothers and fathers compared with other adult voices.
b. Neonates show preferences for languages spoken by their parents.
c. Neonates are more likely to respond to low-pitch sounds.
d. Neonates are particularly responsive to the sounds and rhythms of speech.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which study supports the idea that smell is a vehicle for mother–infant recognition and attachment?
a. When breast-feeding mothers significantly changed their diets, their babies no longer preferred the smell of their nursing pads.
b. Breast-fed babies – but not bottle-fed babies – prefer the odor of their mothers’ underarms.
c. Before even tasting the bottle, breast-fed babies refused the milk of another mother but accepted formula.
d. Fathers who wore the t-shirts of breast-feeding mothers – but not bottle-feeding mothers – reported less crying when caring for their newborns.

 

 

 

 

  1. How do sweet solutions typically affect neonates?
a. They produce a calming effect. c. They increase the rate of sucking.
b. They decrease heart rate. d. They cause intestinal distention.

 

 

 

  1. Which study showed that classical conditioning is possible in neonates?
a. Neonates were taught to wave their arm in response to a tone.
b. Neonates were taught to grasp in response to smell.
c. Neonates were taught to blink in response to a tone.
d. Neonates were taught to smile in response to smell.

 

 

 

  1. What is an example of classical conditioning in an infant?
a. An infant is picked up in response to crying.
b. An infant learns to swallow solid food with practice.
c. An infant voluntarily grasps her mother’s finger.
d. An infant smiles at her mother’s – but not a stranger’s – face.

 

 

 

  1. In a study where neonates modified their sucking behavior through the reinforcement of hearing their mothers read a familiar story, the researchers were illustrating which type of learning paradigm?
a. classical conditioning c. imprinting
b. operant conditioning d. sensitization

 

 

 

 

  1. Sonya decides to teach her eight-month-old son Max to wave his hands when he is hungry by giving him his favorite cracker every time he randomly waves his hands. One morning, Sonya catches Max waving his hands, so she searches through the pantry to find his crackers. Is Max likely to learn through Sonya’s technique?
a. No; babies typically do not learn from operant conditioning until they are at least one year old.
b. Yes; Sonya has chosen Max’s favorite snack so he is likely to repeat the behavior.
c. No; for the reinforcer to work in an eight-month-old baby, it must be given within two seconds of the behavior.
d. Yes; Sonya has chosen an easy action for an eight-month-old, hand waving, and an effective motivator, hunger.

 

 

 

 

  1. Per 24-hour period, how much does a typical neonate sleep?
a. 12 hours c. 16 hours
b. 14 hours d. 18 hours

 

 

 

  1. In a 24-hour period, what is a typical sleep-wake cycle for a one-week-old infant?
a. Two cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 8 hours; wakefulness for about 2 hours per cycle.
b. Four cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 2 hours; wakefulness for about 3 hours per cycle.
c. Six cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 4 hours; wakefulness for about 1 hour during each cycle.
d. Eight cycles of waking and sleeping; longest nap about 3 hours; wakefulness for about 4 hours during each cycle.

 

 

 

  1. What may be a function of REM sleep in neonates?
a. During wakefulness, infants experience sensory overload and REM sleep allows them to attune to information missed during the day.
b. REM sleep is thought to prevent SIDS in neonates by stimulating the areas of the brain that control breathing.
c. During the neonatal period, dreams that occur during REM sleep likely contribute to the earliest phases of enculturation.
d. REM sleep causes brain stimulation, which is necessary to drive sufficient protein synthesis for neuronal development and synapse formation.

 

 

 

  1. According to studies, what is the main reason that neonates cry?
a. pain c. fatigue
b. hunger d. over stimulation

 

 

 

  1. Tiana’s newborn daughter Angelica is going through sudden and loud bouts of crying that can last for hours and are accompanied by leg flexing and kicking. Angelica is likely ____.
a. teething c. hungry
b. experiencing colic d. cold

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The more frequently mothers ignore their infants’ crying bouts in the first 9 weeks, the less frequently their infants cry in the following 9-week period. Experts recommend ____.
a. only responding to the urgent cries of neonates
b. picking up but not nursing the infant
c. ignoring a neonates cry to prevent unhealthy attachments
d. addressing the cries because they signify pain or hunger

 

 

 

 

  1. Early on, how do most parents determine what actions to take to soothe their infants?
a. body language of baby c. trial and error of different techniques
b. focus on medical necessities d. verbal cues of the baby

 

 

 

  1. What is the evidence that the soothing function of sucking need not be learned through experience?
a. Babies mimic the sucking motion when at rest or during sleep.
b. As a baby outgrows colic, their rooting reflex also strengthens.
c. Babies who cry incessantly or become easily agitated typically show a weak rooting reflex at birth.
d. Sucking on a pacifier decreases crying and agitated movement in hungry neonates.

 

 

 

 

  1. A major concern of many parents is that if they quickly pick up a crying baby, ____.
a. the baby’s volunteer behavior will become instinct
b. the baby will inevitably suffer greater discomfort
c. they are reinforcing the baby for crying
d. they are interfering with a natural course of events

 

 

 

  1. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is also referred to as ____.
a. crib death c. infantile anoxic termination
b. blue baby syndrome d. neonatal unintentional asphyxiation

 

 

 

 

  1. SIDS is more common among which groups?
a. infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes
b. infants with Down’s syndrome
c. low-birth-weight infants
d. infants with cerebral palsy

 

 

 

 

  1. Infancy is the period of very early childhood, before two years of age, and characterized by a lack of ____.
a. complex speech c. fine motor control
b. complex thought processes d. gross motor control

 

 

 

 

  1. According to a study conducted by the Children’s Hospital Boston, SIDS may be caused by ____.
a. high responsiveness of the cerebral cortex to glutamate
b. high responsiveness of the basal ganglia to dopamine
c. low responsiveness of the amygdala to acetylcholine
d. low responsiveness of the medulla to serotonin

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. To prevent SIDS, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends ____.
a. keeping the baby’s room warm
b. using a pacifier at sleep time
c. placing infants on their side during sleep
d. using home monitoring devices for detecting sleep patterns

 

 

 

  1. The three key sequences of physical development are cephalocaudal development, proximodistal development, and ____.
a. transformation c. specification
b. elongation d. differentiation

 

 

  1. Cephalocaudal development proceeds ____.
a. from the lower parts of the body to the head
b. from the outward structures of the body inward
c. from the upper part of the head to the lower parts of the body
d. from the inner part (or axis) of the body outward

 

 

 

 

  1. Proximodistal development proceeds ____.
a. from the lower parts of the body to the head
b. from the outward structures of the body inward
c. from the upper part of the head to the lower parts of the body
d. from the inner part (or axis) of the body outward

 

 

 

 

  1. By what factors do the head, torso, arms and legs lengthen between birth and maturity?
a. head: 2x; torso: 3x, arms: 4x; legs: 5x
b. head: 3x; torso: 2x, arms: 5x; legs: 4x
c. head: 4x; torso: 3x, arms: 2x; legs: 5x
d. head: 2x; torso: 4x, arms: 3x; legs: 5x

 

 

 

  1. Why does the head develop more rapidly than the rest of the body during the embryonic stage?
a. The head is required to provide structural support to the rest of the body.
b. The brain is essential for the development of the rest of the body.
c. Growth hormones are first secreted from the limb buds towards the head.
d. During embryogenesis, the torso and limb buds fold out from under the head.

 

 

 

  1. Why does the spinal cord develop before the limbs?
a. The muscle fibers of the arms and the legs directly attach to the spinal cord.
b. Hormones are secreted along the spinal cord to regulate arm and leg development.
c. The nerves must be in place before infants can gain control over their arms and legs.
d. The spinal cord provides structural support for the rest of the body.

 

 

 

  1. Brothers, James age 4 and Tim age 1, are playing in the kitchen. Unfortunately, the oven was left on and each boy accidentally touches the hot oven door. James withdrawals his finger, shouts and cries; Tim withdrawals his finger, wails, and thrashes about on the floor. The different reactions of the two boys demonstrates the process of ____.
a. differentiation c. discrimination
b. maturity d. motor regulation

 

 

 

 

  1. At birth, full-term baby Shiloh is 18 inches in length. If Shiloh follows a typical growth pattern, on her first birthday, she will be how many inches tall?
a. 24 inches c. 30 inches
b. 27 inches d. 33 inches

 

 

 

  1. At birth, full-term baby Claire weighs 7 lbs. If Claire follows a typical growth pattern, on her first birthday, she will weigh ____.
a. 14 lbs c. 28 lbs
b. 21 lbs d. 35 lbs

 

 

 

 

  1. According to researchers, what is the typical pattern of growth for infants?
a. Gradual and slow growth occurs on a daily basis.
b. Long periods of no growth are followed by gradual growth spurts occurring over the course of a week.
c. Periods of quick growth (within 24 hours) alternate with periods of gradual growth (within one week).
d. Long periods of no growth are separated by short period (within 24 hours) of rapid growth.

 

 

 

 

  1. Raul is a healthy infant who is on schedule with his growth milestones. Compared with his body proportion on his first birthday, what will Raul’s body proportion be like on his second birthday?
a. His arms will be longer than his legs; his head will increase in proportion to the rest of the body.
b. His arms will be shorter than his legs; his head will increase in proportion to the rest of the body.
c. His arms will be longer than his legs; his head will decrease in proportion to the rest of the body.
d. His arms will be shorter than his legs; his head will decrease in proportion to the rest of the body.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is at the root of failure to thrive (FTT) disorder?
a. genetic predisposition c. prenatal teratogen exposure
b. exposure to environmental toxins d. feeding problems

 

 

 

  1. Tara, who is in third grade, was diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) as an infant. Therefore, it is not surprising that Tara currently ____.
a. has asthma c. is a picky eater
b. is having difficulties in school d. needs glasses

 

 

 

 

  1. As an infant, Naimh was diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT). Her parents worked very hard with their pediatrician to address Naimh’s FTT disorder. Now in first grade, Naimh has almost caught up in height with her peers; this illustrates which process?
a. growth acceleration c. compensation
b. exponential correction d. canalization

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a common problem associated with poor infant nutrition?
a. anemia c. heart murmur
b. hypothyroidism d. tachycardia

 

 

 

  1. Solid foods should be introduced to a baby around ____.
a. 2-4 months of age c. 6-8 months of age
b. 4-6 months of age d. 8-10 months of age

 

 

 

  1. Tanya’s infant daughter is ready to begin solid foods. As her pediatrician, what advice would you give her?
a. Include a variety of high-fiber foods.
b. Restrict fat and cholesterol intake.
c. Encourage the consumption of high-iron foods.
d. Introduce several types of food at once.

 

 

 

 

  1. Ciara, who is in the final trimester of her pregnancy, is contemplating breast-feeding her soon-to-be born baby. As her obstetrician, what information can you give Ciara to help her make an informed decision?
a. Breast milk helps protect against the form of childhood cancer known as medulloblastomas.
b. Breast milk contains the mother’s antibodies.
c. After three months of age, breast milk alone is not a sufficient source of nutrients.
d. Maternal infections or environmental toxins cannot be passed through breast milk.

 

 

 

 

  1. A rootlike part of a neuron that receives impulses from other neurons is referred to as a(n) ____.
a. axon c. cilia
b. dendrite d. flagella

 

 

 

  1. A long, thin part of a neuron that transmits impulses to other neurons through branching structures is referred to as a(n) ____
a. axon c. cilia
b. dendrite d. flagella

 

 

 

  1. Neurons communicate with other cells via ____ release.
a. neurotransmitter c. neurotropic
b. neurohormone d. neuroprostanoid

 

 

 

  1. Why does the loss of myelin disrupt a neuron’s ability to transmit signals?
a. Nerve cells lose their cushioning.
b. Nerve cells lose their insulation.
c. Nerve cells can longer receive nourishment.
d. Nerve cells can no longer elongate.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of infant brain development?
a. Neurons continuously proliferate until one year of age.
b. Myelination is complete by the time a fetus is full-term.
c. The formation of axons and dendrites contribute to a major growth spurt of the neonatal brain.
d. The development of intentional physical activity coincides with an increase in brain size.

 

 

 

  1. Which brain region helps a child maintain balance, control motor behavior, and coordinate eye movements with bodily sensations?
a. medulla c. cerebrum
b. cerebellum d. amygdala

 

 

 

  1. A research study in which rats were exposed to “amusement parks” containing ladders, platforms, and boxes demonstrated that rats exposed to these enriched environments had ____.
a. more myelin c. longer axons
b. larger brains d. more efficient synaptic activity

 

 

 

 

  1. Jessica watches her nine-month-old son Aaron pick up cereal with his fingers. She notices that, although he once held the cereal between his fingers and palm, he now picks up the cereal using his finger and thumb. What is Aaron demonstrating?
a. A switch from a palmer grasp to an ulnar grasp
b. A switch from a pincer grasp to an palmer grasp
c. A switch from a pincer grasp to an ulnar grasp
d. A switch from a ulnar grasp to a pincer grasp

 

 

 

  1. Sierra’s parents are amazed by her development. She has gone from rolling over to now sitting up by herself. Her parents are anticipating the day she will begin crawling around their apartment. If she follows the normal developmental milestones of an infant, Sierra is most likely ____.
a. 5 months of age c. 9 months of age
b. 7 months of age d. 11 months of age

 

 

 

 

  1. Jessi takes her 10 month old son Christophe for a check up. What will Christophe’s pediatrician look for to determine if he is on schedule with his locomotor development?
a. Sitting up by himself
b. Sitting up by himself; crawling/creeping.
c. Sitting up by himself; crawling/creeping; pulling himself up
d. Sitting up by himself; crawling/creeping; pulling himself up; walking

 

 

 

  1. Jack is an 18-month-old toddler who runs about his house. His parents are amazed at how frequently he falls. In addition to his inexperience, what contributes to Jack’s apparent clumsiness?
a. weak legs c. lack of abdominal muscle tone
b. top-heaviness d. walking in a toe-to-heel fashion

 

 

 

  1. In a 1940 study, Wayne and Marsena Dennis reported on the motor development of Native American Hopi children, who spent their first year strapped to a cradleboard. What where their findings?
a. The Hopi children experienced severe motor deficits that persisted into adulthood.
b. When compared with children from other tribes, Hopi children lacked gross motor skills but excelled in fine motor skills.
c. Despite being denied a full year of locomotion experience, Hopi children shortly caught up to other children in terms of walking.
d. Because they had to work harder to learn to walk, as adolescents, the Hopi children had superior athleticiscm compared with adolescents from other tribes.

 

 

 

  1. Jeff and Dan are identical twins. Jeff was raised by their grandmother and Dan was raised by their aunt. Because of her age, the grandmother’s interactions with Jeff were mostly sedentary as she spent a lot of time reading him books; in contrast the aunt interacted with Dan on a very physical level, showing him how to stack blocks, climb stairs and crawl. Based on the research findings of Arnold Gesell, what would you conclude about the twins’ motor skills?
a. Dan had superior motor skills throughout their childhood.
b. Ultimately, the differences between Jeff and Dan’s motor skills are negligible.
c. Dan will not only have superior motor skills, but will also be taller than Jeff.
d. Dan will have superior motor skills; Jeff will have superior verbal abilities.

 

 

 

 

  1. Alaska, a two-month old baby girl, stares at her grandmother’s face. What facial feature is Alaska most likely to fixate on the longest?
a. the cheeks or chin c. the nose
b. the eyes d. the mouth

 

 

 

  1. In a classic study, Gibson and Walk (1960) placed infants of various ages on a fabric-covered runway that ran across the center of a device called a visual cliff. What were the findings of this study?
a. Most infants spent an equal amount of time on the “shallow” and “dropped” side of the visual cliff because of their immature depth perception.
b. Most infants spent most of their time on the “dropped” side of the visual cliff because it was novel.
c. Most infants would only cross the visual cliff if encouraged to do so by their mothers.
d. Most infants would not cross the visual cliff, even if encouraged to do so by their mothers.

 

 

 

 

  1. Five-month-old Tarik dislikes his high chair; he cries at first glimpse of the high chair in anticipation that he will placed in the confining chair. He recognizes the high chair from all angles: whether he is sitting on the floor, looking up at the high chair, or someone is holding him over it. Tarik’s all encompassing recognition of the high chair illustrates ____.
a. shape constancy c. object constancy
b. size constancy d. object permanence

 

 

 

  1. What is the relationship between language and auditory perception in infants?
a. Neonates prefer the sounds of their parents’ native language over other languages.
b. At first, young infants can perceive most speech sounds regardless of the language, but eventually can only discriminate the sounds of their native language.
c. Infants fixate on meaningless deviations in speech in their native language (i.e., changes in speech because of congestion) but are unable to do so in other languages.
d. Infants as young as one month of age can discriminate between one syllable sounds, but are unable to do so with more complex three syllable sounds.

 

 

 

  1. In an experiment demonstrating the critical period, an eye patch was placed for a prolonged period of time over the eye of a kitten or the eye of an adult cat. What did this study find?
a. The structure of the eye was abnormal for the kitten but not for the adult cat.
b. Fewer light receptors were found in the kitten than in the adult cat.
c. The visual cortex was impaired in the kitten but not in the adult cat.
d. In contrast to the adult cat, the kitten was unable to focus on close objects.

 

 

 

 

  1. Three month old Ruchi holds her pointer finger out in front of her face, repeating this behavior over and over again. Her mother believes that Ruchi first noticed her finger by chance, but now baby Ruchi seems fascinated with her finger. Which of Piaget’s sensorimotor stages is Ruchi demonstrating?
a. Primary Circular Reactions c. Coordination of Secondary Schemes
b. Secondary Circular Reactions d. Tertiary Circular Reactions

 

 

 

 

  1. Ten-month-old Despina crawls over to the wall sockets and begins to stick her finger into the socket. As usual, her mother begins to say “no” and shake her head. To her mother’s delight, for the first time, Despina responds to her mother by saying “no” and shaking her head. Which of Piaget’s sensorimotor substage is Despina demonstrating?
a. Secondary Circular Reactions
b. Coordination of Secondary Schemes
c. Tertiary Circular Reactions
d. Invention of New Means through Mental Combinations

 

 

 

 

  1. Baby Bianca watches her mother place a teddy bear in the closet. Moments later Bianca’s big brother Ben retrieves the teddy bear as Bianca watches in amazement. Bianca’s lack of awareness that the teddy bear exists when hidden in a closet demonstrates the absence of ____.
a. relative perception c. concrete schema formation
b. object permanence d. visual extrapolation

 

 

 

  1. What is a critique of Piaget’s theory?
a. Piaget’s theory assumed that infants required considerable time to process information before imitating a behavior.
b. Piaget’s observations were not applicable to all cultures, only to those cultures of Western origin.
c. Piaget tended to overestimate the competence of infants.
d. Piaget’s theory tends to exclude adult and peer influences on cognitive development.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of memory formation in infants?
a. Infants under four months of age can recall information acquired within a 24 hour window.
b. Memory improves dramatically between two and six months of age.
c. Young infants, but not neonates, demonstrate memory for stimuli to which they have been exposed previously.
d. Long-lasting memories (one week or greater) typically do not occur until the beginning of the first year.

 

 

 

 

  1. The process of imitation in infants requires ____.
a. mirror neurons c. perception nuclei
b. recognition cortices d. mimicking reflex arcs

 

 

 

  1. One of the most important tests of intellectual development among infants is the ____.
a. Sear’s Infant Cognition Scale c. Spock’s Target Assessment
b. Bayley Scales of Infant Development d. Piaget Milestones Ladder Test

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. To his parents delight, eight-month-old Kumani begins to say “dadada” over and over again. However, Kumani’s father is disappointed to find out that Kumani is not calling out for him. Kumani’s vocalizations are an example of ____.
a. intonation c. cooing
b. echolalia d. babbling

 

 

 

 

  1. Ten-month-old Vanessa is overheard by her mother saying “ah-doh-doh-doh-doh” then “oh-gah-gah-gah,” as if she were having a conversation with herself. This is an example of ____.
a. intonation c. cooing
b. echolalia d. babbling

 

 

 

  1. What is true of early speech in children?
a. More than half (65%) of children’s first words comprise action verbs.
b. Early phrases such as “all gone” and “bye-bye” function as words when used continuously to symbolize the same meaning.
c. Vocabulary acquisition is generally very rapid once a child speaks their first word.
d. A child’s first word typically is spoken between the ages of 18 and 20 months.

 

 

 

  1. Fifteen-month-old Latisha enjoys playing with her pet kitten at home, whom she calls “kit-cat.” At the park, she runs over to a group of ducks and excitedly shouts out “kit-cat;” she then runs over to a woman walking her dog and points to the dog shouting out “kit-cat.” Latisha’s verbalizations illustrate ____.
a. overextension c. expressive language style
b. telegraphic speech d. receptive vocabulary

 

 

 

  1. Which example below best illustrates the use of a holophrase?
a. Sixteen month old Emanuel wants to join his brother in the bath tub and shouts out “Tub-tub!” instead of just “Tub!”
b. Seventeen month old Carter points to and gleefully lists several items on a shelf: “Doll; pencil; piggy bank; book!”
c. Eighteen month old Malik shouts out “Snack!” when he is hungry or when his parents bring food over to his high chair.
d. Nineteen month old Shakira shouts out “Bring here!” instead of saying “Bring that thing over here!”

 

 

 

  1. According to B.F. Skinner, cooing and babbling are inborn behaviors; only those sounds that are consistent with a child’s parents’ native language remain because of ____.
a. extinction and shaping c. devaluing and shaping
b. extinction and building d. devaluing and building

 

 

 

  1. What is evidence that supports Noam Chomsky’s idea of a language acquisition device?
a. Deaf infants produce early sounds consistent with other infants.
b. The human tongue has more muscles than non-human primates.
c. The human auricle (outer ear) has more convolutions than that of other animals.
d. Children have a greater capacity than adults to learn other languages.

 

 

 

 

  1. Damage to either Broca’s area or Wernicke’s area of the cerebral cortex will result in ____.
a. aphasia c. tachycardia
b. ataxia d. bradykinesia

 

 

 

  1. Pedro and Juan are identical twins living in the same crowded orphanage, where they receive little attention from the caregivers. Pedro is adopted at age six and Juan not until age thirteen. Pedro is able to catch up with his peers in terms of language development; Juan is not. In contrast to Juan, Pedro was adopted before the ____.
a. plasticity plateau c. sensitive period
b. critical verbal stage d. acquisition phase

 

 

 

  1. Ainsworth’s three phases of attachment are: ____.
a. attachment-in-the making phase; transition-to-separation phase; and clear-cut-attachment phase
b. initial-preattachment phase; transition-to-separation phase; and exploration and autonomy phase
c. attachment-in-the making phase; clear-cut-attachment phase; and exploration and autonomy phase
d. initial-preattachment phase; attachment-in-the-making phase; and clear-cut-attachment phase

 

 

 

  1. What were the findings of Harry and Margaret Harlow’s attachment study using rhesus monkeys?
a. The drive to stay close to the source of nourishment outweighs the need for contact comfort.
b. The need for contact comfort is as basic as the need for food.
c. Only securely attached monkeys demonstrated the need for contact comfort.
d. The infants died within a critical period if denied contact comfort despite having adequate food and water.

 

 

 

  1. What have the natives from an isolated Guatemalan village taught us about the capacity of children to recover from social deprivation?
a. Although the Guatemalan children were socially and physically isolated as infants, retarding their progress, they had higher than average IQs by 11 years of age.
b. Guatemalan children who were socially isolated as infants only recovered their physical and social abilities by age 11 if subsequently raised in industrialized societies.
c. Guatemalan children who were isolated during their first year of life were physically and socially retarded; yet they were able to catch up with other children by 11 years of age.
d. Only those Guatemalan children who were isolated as young infants and exposed to sufficient levels of natural sunlight were able to catch up with other children by 11 years of age.

 

 

 

 

  1. Autism spectrum disorders (ASDs) are developmental disorders characterized by impairment in social skills, repetitive, stereotyped behavior and deficiencies in ____.
a. gross motor abilities c. communication
b. fine motor abilities d. memory formation

 

 

 

  1. What is true of the affects of daycare on the behavior of children?
a. Children in poor-quality day cares tend to be more aggressive than children from high-quality day care centers.
b. Participation in good-quality day care is linked with better academic performance in elementary school.
c. Children in daycare, regardless of the quality, are more likely to share their toys.
d. Most infants in daycare are insecurely attached.

 

 

 

  1. Alistair brings his eleven-month-old son Claude to a small day care center. Claude is unsure of this new environment, but he relaxes when he sees his dad smiling and laughing. Claude’s behavior illustrates ____.
a. emotional assurance c. social referencing
b. secure grounding d. emotional regulation

 

 

 

  1. “Self-conscious” emotions such as embarrassment, envy, empathy, pride, guilt, and shame first originate from ____.
a. self-awareness c. insecure attachments
b. parental pressures d. suppression of the ego

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. Describe the six states of sleep and wakefulness that have been identified in neonates and infants.

 

 

 

  1. In terms of the needs of the developing organism, why is cephalocaudal development a logical progression?

 

 

  1. What is the evidence that young infants recognize that objects experienced through one sense (e.g., vision) are the same as those experienced through another sense (e.g., touch)?

 

 

  1. According to Eleanor Gibson, what broad changes occur in the perceptual processes of children that demonstrates a more active role in perception ?

 

 

  1. What are the six substages of Piaget’s sensorimotor stages?

 

 

 

  1. List eight things that adults can do to facilitate language growth in young children.

 

 

  1. Describe the terms surface structure and deep structure as characterized by psycholinguists Noam Chomsky and explain Chomsky’s view on language acquisition in children.

 

 

  1. Describe Mary Ainsworth’s three styles of attachment as characterized by the strange-situation method.

 

 

  1. What is the evidence in rhesus monkeys that social deprivation has a strong developmental impact?

 

ANS:

 

  1. Describe the three types of childhood temperaments, as described by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 04: Early Childhood

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. During early childhood, physical growth is faster than in infancy.

 

 

  1. Plasticity of the brain is greatest at about 1–2 years of age and then gradually declines.

 

 

  1. Rough-and-tumble play helps develop physical and social skills.

 

 

  1. The average 4- to 6-year-old needs about 2,000 calories per day.

 

 

 

  1. Sleep terrors are more severe than nightmares and occur during non-REM sleep.

 

 

  1. HOME inventory items are better predictors of young children’s later IQ scores than social class, mother’s IQ, or infant IQ scores.

 

 

  1. Verbal reports from preschoolers appear to underestimate their memories.

 

 

  1. A two year old child typically asks many why and how questions.

 

 

 

  1. Children typically do not use the past tense in speech until about 4 years of age.

 

 

  1. Piaget believed that cognitive development precedes language development.

 

 

 

  1. The children of authoritarian parents are the least competent, responsible, and mature.

 

 

  1. Firstborn children tend to be more cooperative and have higher IQs than later-born children.

 

 

 

  1. Parallel play, as characterized by Parten, is a type of nonsocial play.

 

 

 

  1. Parents can foster prosocial behavior in preschoolers by using authoritarian techniques.

 

 

  1. The sense of self does not begin to emerge until toddlerhood.

 

 

 

  1. According to Erik Erikson, young children strive to achieve independence from their parents and to master adult behavior during the stage of initiative versus guilt.

 

 

  1. During the preschool years, boys typically report having more fears than girls.

 

 

  1. Women typically integrate information from the amygdala of both cerebral hemispheres when navigating routes.

 

 

  1. According to Freud, gender identification is completed as children resolve the Oedipus or Electra complex.

 

 

  1. A gender schema is a cluster of concepts about male and female physical traits, behaviors, and personality traits.

 

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. During early childhood, girls and boys tend to gain about how many inches in height per year?
a. one to two` c. three to four
b. two to three d. four to five

 

 

 

 

  1. During early childhood, which organ undergoes the most rapid development?
a. heart c. lungs
b. brain d. skin

 

 

 

  1. Five year old Jake brags to his two year old sister Kayla that his brain is bigger than hers. Jake’s mother quickly points out that her brain is even bigger than Jake’s. Compared to their mother, what are the relative sizes of Jake’s and Kayla’s brains?
a. Jake’s is 30% smaller; Kayla’s is 45% smaller.
b. Jake’s is 10% smaller; Kayla’s is 45% smaller.
c. Jake’s is 30% smaller; Kayla’s is 25% smaller.
d. Jake’s is 10% smaller; Kayla’s is 25% smaller.

 

 

 

  1. When Jillian was two years old, her mother was discouraged that she would not sit through story hour. Now that she is in kindergarten, Jillian pays close attention to her teacher. What developmental process of the brain contributed to Jillian’s change in behavior?
a. neuronal proliferation c. dendritic arborization
b. increased myelination d. neurotransmitter synthesis

 

 

 

 

  1. What brain structure enables the right and left hemispheres to work together to integrate logical and emotional functioning?
a. reticular formation c. corpus callosum
b. basal ganglia d. amygdala

 

 

 

  1. Following a bicycle accident, four year old Devin suffers damage to his Broca’s area and consequently has trouble speaking. He eventually regains the ability to speak because other areas of his brain compensate for the damage. The process that allows one area of the brain to take over for another is referred to as ____.
a. restoration c. regeneration
b. pliability d. plasticity

 

 

 

  1. In general, preschoolers appear to acquire motor skills by teaching themselves and by ____.
a. observing other children c. following parental instructions
b. observing adults d. following a teacher’s instructions

 

 

 

  1. Miranda’s mother watches her daughter run down the street while singing at the top of her lungs. At what developmental stage did Miranda likely start this behavior?
a. toddler c. older preschooler
b. early preschooler d. early elementary schooler

 

 

 

 

  1. Daniel sits on the kitchen floor banging on a plastic bowl with a wooden spoon. At what age will this type of motor-activity likely begin to decline?
a. one to two years of age c. three to four years of age
b. two to three years of age d. four to five years of age

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of the relationship between gender and gross motor skill development during the early childhood years?
a. There is a clear relationship; boys tend to outperform girls in most gross motor skill categories.
b. There is a clear relationship; girls tend to outperform boys in most gross motor skill categories.
c. Individual differences are larger than gender differences, but girls tend to be somewhat better at balance and precision and boys at throwing and kicking.
d. Individual differences are larger than gender differences, but boys tend to be somewhat better at balance and precision and girls at throwing and kicking.

 

 

 

  1. Jordan and Jesse run around the playground chasing and pushing one another while laughing. This type of behavior ____.
a. signifies aggression
b. represents normal rough-and-tumble play
c. is used to establish a hierarchy amongst children
d. is a sign of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

 

 

 

 

  1. From the list below, which scenario represents the typical drawing style of a three or four year old child?
a. Min scribbles in the middle of the paper.
b. Mariah is trying her best to draw her grandmother’s house.
c. Caleb draws several triangles and decides they look like a sailboat.
d. Sama uses only one color while drawing her baby brother.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Jodi is perplexed by the fact that her six month old daughter Alexis picks up her food with either her right or left hand. When will Alexis begin to show a preference for using one particular hand when grasping?
a. 7 to 11 months c. 19 to 23 months
b. 13 to 17 months d. 25 to 29 months

 

 

 

  1. Frank and Magda wonder if their four year old son Noah, who is left-handed, is at risk for any developmental problems. As an expert in early childhood development, you mention to them that being left-handed appears to be connected to ____.
a. dyslexia c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
b. autism d. failure to thrive

 

 

 

 

  1. Nala is worried about her three-year-old daughter Cindy’s stubborn eating habits. Cindy refuses almost anything that Nala puts on her plate for breakfast or lunch. As Cindy’s pediatrician, what do you tell Nala?
a. This may be a sign of gastrointestinal problems.
b. Cindy is likely making up for the lost calories at dinner.
c. Nala should offer any type of food, even sweets, to get Cindy to eat.
d. Cindy is showing signs of failure to thrive.

 

 

 

  1. Sophie’s three year old son Sam refuses to eat vegetables. According to the text, what would be the best way to get Sam to eat his vegetables?
a. Blend the vegetables together with something sweet.
b. Offer him nothing but vegetables to eat for two days.
c. Use a reward or punishment system.
d. Introduce tiny amounts of vegetables on his plate at several meals.

 

 

 

 

  1. American children between the ages of 1 and 3 average how many minor illnesses per year?
a. two to three c. six to seven
b. four to five d. eight to nine

 

 

 

  1. What condition is connected with half of the deaths of children under the age of 5 worldwide?
a. malnutrition c. pneumonia
b. diarrhea d. measles

 

 

 

  1. What has lead to the dramatic reduction in the incidence of serious and potentially fatal childhood diseases in the United States?
a. genetic screening and vaccines c. antibiotics and vaccines
b. genetic screening and safe water d. antibiotics and safe water

 

 

 

 

  1. The single most common cause of death in early childhood is ____.
a. pneumonia c. motor-vehicle accidents
b. smoke inhalation d. airway obstruction

 

 

 

  1. Shortly after falling asleep, five year old Casey wakes up suddenly, thrashing about and talking incoherently. Her mother races to her room and notices that she is breathing heavily and her heart is racing. Casey likely experienced a ____.
a. nightmare c. sleep terror
b. dream-induced seizure d. nocturnal disturbance

 

 

 

  1. Terri finds her five year old son Omar walking back to his room in the middle of the night with a glass of milk in his hand. She is perplexed by the fact that Omar quietly enters his room, sets the glass on his nightstand, and then goes back to bed. What may Omar be experiencing?
a. cataplexy c. bruxism
b. nocturia d. somnambulism

 

 

 

  1. Six-year-old Pippa has difficulty controlling her bladder and has “accidents” at least twice per month. Pippa suffers from ____.
a. enuresis c. encopresis
b. proteinuria d. dyspepsia

 

 

 

 

  1. Five year old Alan has difficulty controlling his bowels and has had an occasional “accident” at school. Alan suffers from ____.
a. enuresis c. encopresis
b. proteinuria d. dyspepsia

 

 

  1. What are the two words that best characterize Piaget’s preoperational stage?
a. logical and emergent c. independent and confident
b. curious and empathetic d. inflexible and irreversible

 

 

 

  1. Preoperational thought is characterized by the use of ____.
a. symbols to represent objects and relationships among them
b. activities and sensations to navigate one’s environment
c. rudimentary logic and concrete ideology
d. abstract and creative problem solving techniques

 

 

 

 

  1. Jodi watches as her son Raj plops down on the rug and pretends to fall asleep before quickly bolting up and smiling. This type of pretend play where children perform activities that are familiar typically commences at the age of ____.
a. 9 to 10 months c. 15 to 17 months
b. 12 to 13 months d. 19 to 20 months

 

 

 

  1. Li picks her three year old son Min up from daycare and asks, “What did you do today?,” Min shouts back, “You know mommy, stop asking!” According to Piaget, Min is demonstrating ____.
a. egocentrism c. apathy
b. narcissism d. individualism

 

 

 

  1. What test did Piaget use to learn whether children at certain ages are egocentric or can take the viewpoints of others?
a. the four-tiers test c. the five-skyscrapers test
b. the three-mountains test d. the six-points test

 

 

 

  1. Which child is demonstrating precausal thought?
a. Amy states, “The rain falls out of the sky so I can have a drink of water.”
b. Gavin asks, “Daddy, did you build that tree in front of our house?”
c. Timotea states, “Stars shine because they are afraid of the dark.”
d. Elvin states, “I swim because it is summer.”

 

 

 

  1. Which child is demonstrating transductive reasoning?
a. Amy states, “The rain falls out of the sky so I can have a drink of water.”
b. Gavin asks “Daddy, did you build that tree in front of our house?”
c. Timotea states, “Stars shine because they are afraid of the dark.”
d. Elvin states, “I swim because it is summer.”

 

 

 

 

  1. Which child is demonstrating animism?
a. Amy states, “The rain falls out of the sky so I can have a drink of water.”
b. Gavin asks “Daddy, did you build that tree in front of our house?”
c. Timotea states, “Stars shine because they are afraid of the dark.”
d. Elvin states, “I swim because it is summer.”

 

 

 

 

  1. Which child is demonstrating artificialism?
a. Amy states, “The rain falls out of the sky so I can have a drink of water.”
b. Gavin asks “Daddy, did you build that tree in front of our house?”
c. Timotea states, “Stars shine because they are afraid of the dark.”
d. Elvin states, “I swim because it is summer.”

 

 

 

  1. Bryan watches as his father pours two cups of water into a wide saucepan and two cups of water into a tall pot. Bryan is unable to understand that the saucepan and pot contain the same amounts of water because he does not understand the law of ____.
a. transference c. conservation
b. inclusion d. centration

 

 

 

 

  1. When Bryan watches his father pour two cups of water into a wide saucepan and two cups of water into a tall pot, Bryan fixates on the height of the tall pot and believes that it contains more water. Bryan’s fixation on the height of the pot illustrates ____.
a. transference c. conservation
b. inclusion d. centration

 

 

 

 

  1. Four-year-old Luis is shown a picture of seven hot dogs and four hamburgers. When asked which there are more hot dogs or more food, Luis answers, “More hot dogs.” According to Piaget’s preoperational stage of cognitive development, why does Luis answer the question incorrectly?
a. He does not understand that both hot dogs and hamburgers are types of food.
b. His thought process is very abstract at this stage.
c. He cannot think about subclasses and broader classes simultaneously.
d. He is most likely to pick the choice presented first.

 

 

 

 

  1. Vygotsky’s term for temporary cognitive structures or methods of solving problems that help the child as he or she learns to function independently is ____.
a. improvising c. structuring
b. schematizing d. scaffolding

 

 

 

  1. Vygotsky’s term for the situation in which a child carries out tasks with the help of someone who is more skilled is the ____.
a. region of apt instruction c. zone of proximal development
b. area of structured learning d. perimeter of mentored knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Three year old Hannah watches Sesame Street every morning. According to research studies, how will this affect her cognitive skills?
a. no effect c. positive effect
b. negative effect d. variable effect

 

 

 

  1. Moses and Flavell’s experiment, in which they show that four-year-olds, but not three-year-olds, tend to understand that people have different perspectives, demonstrates the concept of ____.
a. mental transduction c. self-awareness discrepancy
b. theory of the mind d. pivotal mind expansion

 

 

 

  1. In a study by Taylor and Hort, three- to five-year-old children were shown an eraser that looked like a cookie. What did the researchers conclude about the working mind of young children from their study?
a. Young children have difficulty with appearance-reality distinction.
b. Young children have a firm grip on concrete-realism.
c. Young children have an immature understanding of objective-relatively.
d. Young children have mastered object permanence.

 

 

 

 

  1. Four-year-old Shante ice skates with her family each winter. Months after she last went ice skating, she gleefully describes to her neighbor what ice skating entails: “You get skates, lace them up, wear your hat and gloves, and slip on the ice.” Her ability to give an abstract, generalized account of ice skating demonstrations the formation of a(n) ____.
a. script c. outline
b. schema d. sketch

 

 

 

  1. The memory of specific episodes or events is referred to as ____ memory.
a. engrained c. concrete
b. working d. autobiographical

 

 

 

  1. A three- to five-year-old child will most easily remember ____.
a. his or her birthday c. the steps involved in making cookies
b. the days of the week d. the colors of the rainbow

 

 

 

 

  1. Word learning, in which a child quickly attaches a new word to its appropriate concept, can be characterized as what type of process?
a. fast-mapping c. abstract-association
b. quick-tracking d. mental-matching

 

 

 

  1. While visiting the House of Reptiles, four-year-old Montel excitedly shouts out, “Look at that tongue Mommy!” as he points to a snake sticking out its tongue. Montel’s two-year-old sister Sage now thinks that snakes are called “tongues.” Why does she make this incorrect assumption?
a. whole-object assumption c. overextension assumption
b. proximity assumption d. focal assumption

 

 

  1. While reading his three-year-old daughter Shiloh a book about farm animals, Mark says, “Look at the llama.” Since the only other animal on the page is one that Shiloh is familiar with, a horse, she assumes that the other animal must be the llama. Shiloh is demonstrating ____.
a. experience assumption c. familiarity assumption
b. deductive assumption d. contrast assumption

 

 

 

 

  1. At two and a half years old, Sam would shout, “Mommy went away!” Now at three years old, he sometimes says, “Mommy goed away!” What does this indicate?
a. Sam is showing signs of developmental regression.
b. Sam is rebelling against conventional rules.
c. Sam is accurately grasping the rules of grammar.
d. Sam is having trouble grasping the rules of grammar.

 

 

 

 

  1. When playing house, four-year-old Janice uses a high-pitched soft voice to talk to her dolls. When she pretends she is a teacher, she uses an authoritative voice. Janice is demonstrating the use of ____.
a. realism c. absolutism
b. pragmatics d. relativity

 

 

 

  1. According to Vygotsky, what is the ultimate binding of language and thought?
a. intelligence c. creativity
b. inner speech d. abstract pairing

 

 

 

 

  1. Dimensions of child rearing can be broken down into two broad categories: ____.
a. warmth–coldness and restrictiveness–permissiveness
b. warmth–coldness and reasonable-demanding
c. sympathy-apathy and restrictiveness-permissiveness
d. sympathy-apathy and reasonable-demanding

 

 

 

 

  1. What type of parenting method aims to teach knowledge that will enable children to generate desirable behavior on their own?
a. exemplative c. inductive
b. proactive d. assertive

 

 

 

  1. Which parenting type incorporates physical punishment with the denial of privileges?
a. obsessive-controlling c. dominant-forceful
b. aggressive-neglectful d. power-assertive

 

 

 

  1. As Alec folds laundry, his three year old daughter Delia grabs the clothes and tosses them onto the floor. According to the text, what is the most effective way for Alec to get Delia to stop the destructive behavior?
a. Be stern but do not yell.
b. Explain to Delia the consequences of her actions.
c. Remove Delia from the laundry room.
d. Find an alternative activity for Delia.

 

 

 

  1. According to Baumrind’s Patterns of Parenting, the parents of the most capable children rate ____.
a. high in restrictiveness and low in warmth
b. high in restrictiveness and high in warmth
c. low in restrictiveness and low in warmth
d. low in restrictiveness and high in warmth

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The motto of an authoritative parent is likely to be “____.”
a. Because I say so c. Be free, be yourself
b. Parents have rules because they care d. Children should not be seen nor heard

 

 

 

  1. The motto of an authoritarian parent is likely to be “____.”
a. Because I say so c. Be free, be yourself
b. Parents have rules because they care d. Children should not be seen nor heard

 

 

 

  1. The motto of a permissive-indulgent parent is likely to be “____.”
a. Because I say so c. Be free, be yourself
b. Parents have rules because they care d. Children should not be seen nor heard

 

 

 

 

  1. The motto of a rejecting-neglecting parent is likely to be “____.”
a. Because I say so c. Be free, be yourself
b. Parents have rules because they care d. Children should not be seen nor heard

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, what is an effective method for controlling and guiding the behavior of young children?
a. Permit your child to explore and act with few boundaries.
b. Give clear, simple, realistic rules appropriate to the child’s age.
c. Address whining or tantrums immediately.
d. Enforce rules for unacceptable habits, such as thumb sucking.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a negative aspect of sibling interaction during early childhood?
a. competition c. aggression
b. neglect d. depression

 

 

 

  1. Although three-year-old Hailey was excited for her new baby brother Blake to arrive, since his birth, Hailey’s behavior has changed; she now has occasional toilet accidents, clings to her mother, and has frequent crying outbursts. Hailey is displaying classic signs of ____.
a. neglect c. despair
b. failure to thrive d. regression

 

 

 

 

  1. Compared with their siblings, first born children are typically ____.
a. more aggressive c. less cooperative
b. better performers academically d. more self-reliant

 

 

 

  1. When preschoolers are asked what they like about their friends, they typically mention that they ____.
a. have fun together
b. share the same toys and activities
c. are in the same class at school
d. remind them of their siblings

 

 

 

  1. Three-year-olds Aiden and Madison pretend that they are husband and wife as they act out going to work and taking care of  their babies together. Aiden and Madison are taking part in what type of play?
a. familiar play c. dramatic play
b. domestic play d. role play

 

 

  1. At her preschool, Parker plays alongside the other children in the play kitchen area. Like the other children, she removes plates and cups from the cabinets and pretends that she is serving and eating food. However, Parker does not directly interact with the other children. Parker is demonstrating what kind of play?
a. solitary c. associative
b. cooperative d. parallel

 

 

 

  1. Michael enters his kindergarten class and runs over to the blocks. As he builds a tower, he starts to talk to his friend Noel about what he is building. Noel then shows Michael the tower that she is building. The two continue to interact while building separate towers. In what type of play are Michael and Noel engaging?
a. cooperative c. associative
b. unoccupied d. parallel

 

 

 

  1. Solenne decides to sit in the corner of her daycare facility and brush a doll’s hair. As other children gather in the play kitchen area, Solenne remains in the corner with her doll. In what type of play is Solenne engaging?
a. solitary c. onlooker
b. unoccupied d. parallel

 

 

 

  1. Preschoolers Felix, Maya, Reagan, and Matthew decide to play cops and robbers. They decide that Felix and Maya will act as the cops and Reagan and Matthew will act as the robbers. They form a set of rules and decide on the location of the jail. The type of play that the children are engaged in is ____.
a. cooperative c. associative
b. unoccupied d. parallel

 

 

 

 

  1. Prosocial behaviors in preschool children are linked to ____.
a. the development of empathy and perspective taking
b. the development of empathy and the IQ of the child
c. socioeconomic status and perspective taking
d. socioeconomic status and the IQ of the child

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of aggressive behavior in preschool aged children?
a. During the late preschool years, hitting usually gives rise to taunting and name calling.
b. Older preschoolers tend to use aggression to obtain toys rather than share.
c. Preschoolers who express anger and aggression tend to be rejected by their peers.
d. Toddlers who are perceived as difficult and defiant usually outgrow the behavior.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the evidence that there is a genetic link to aggression?
a. Drugs used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder typically also reduce aggressive behavior in children.
b. Children who have high levels of testosterone tend to have lower self-esteem and commit more crimes as adults.
c. Adoption studies show that the biological children of criminals commit more crimes than the biological children of non-criminals.
d. There is a greater agreement rate for criminal behavior between identical twins than fraternal twins.

 

 

 

  1. What was the key finding of the Bobo doll experiment by Bandura and colleagues?
a. There is a genetic link to aggression.
b. Televised models have a powerful influence on aggressive behavior.
c. The critical age for addressing aggressive behavior is three years.
d. Some forms of aggressive behavior are healthy for children.

 

 

 

 

  1. Definitions of the self that refer to external traits are referred to as the ____.
a. self-engaged c. self-concept
b. descriptive self d. categorical self

 

 

 

  1. Preschool children begin to make evaluative judgments about two different aspects of themselves by the age of four: cognitive and physical competence, and ____.
a. social acceptance by peers and parents
b. the ability to control their environment
c. whether or not they can “get away” with certain behaviors
d. the regulation of impulse control

 

 

 

  1. Preschoolers are least likely to fear ____.
a. made-up horror stories c. social disapproval
b. real objects (i.e. knives) d. imaginary creatures

 

 

 

  1. The first stage of gender role stereotype development is characterized by ____.
a. perceiving the opposite gender as potential mates
b. labeling pictures of boys and girls
c. using words such as he/she or his/her
d. displaying knowledge of gender stereotypes for objects and activities

 

 

 

  1. What is true of gender differences during the preschool years?
a. Girls are rejected by their peers more often than boys.
b. Boys are more expressive in their speech than girls.
c. Girls play with “boys-toys” more often than boys play with “girls-toys.”
d. Girls show somewhat greater visuospatial ability than boys.

 

 

 

 

  1. Five-year-old Marcus plays with his male classmates Carl, Tommy, and Raul on the playground but avoids his female classmates Denise, Cheryl, and Keisha. According to research findings, why might Marcus prefer to play with boys rather than girls?
a. He is following the lead of older children.
b. He is confused about his feelings toward girls.
c. He fears that the girls might reject him.
d. He may view the girls as inferior.

 

 

 

 

  1. What neurological basis may contribute to gender differences in aggressive behavior between preschool aged children?
a. Differences in frontal lobe myelination
b. Differences in mirror neurons
c. Differences in the size of the amygdala
d. Differences in the connectivity between the left and right hemispheres

 

 

 

  1. According to evolutionary psychologists, gender differences were fashioned by ____.
a. natural selection c. genetic drift
b. genetic mutation d. migration

 

 

 

 

  1. From an evolutionary psychology perspective, what is the primary reason that men have more upper body strength compared to women?
a. To attract women c. To physically overtake women
b. To facilitate hunting d. To compete with other men

 

 

 

 

  1. Which model suggests that a woman’s appeal is more strongly connected with her age and health, and a man’s appeal to his ability to create a stable environment for child rearing?
a. mate selection model c. family unity model
b. structured living model d. parental investment model

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a critique of the evolutionary perspective of gender-typing?
a. Among humans, biology is not destiny.
b. Biological differences between men and women are small.
c. Success has replaced survival as a new evolutionary pressure.
d. Today’s world favors cognition, not physical strength.

 

 

 

 

  1. What neuroanatomical feature may contribute to the superior visuospatial abilities of men?
a. Increased size of the right hemisphere c. Increased size of the frontal lobe
b. Increased size of the left hemisphere d. Increased size of the temporal lobe

 

 

 

 

  1. What neuroanatomical feature may contribute to the superior verbal abilities of women?
a. Increased size of the right hemisphere c. Increased size of the frontal lobe
b. Increased size of the left hemisphere d. Increased size of the temporal lobe

 

 

 

 

  1. What finding supports the idea that prenatal sex hormones influence gender-typed preferences?
a. Infants visually fixate on gender-typed toys in accordance with their genders.
b. Soon after birth, male infants show more innate signs of aggression.
c. When infants begin to crawl, they typically migrate toward toys that are gender-specific.
d. Infants with more testosterone in their amniotic fluid tend to respond less to the touch of their mothers.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which gender-typing theory asserts that boys come to identify with their fathers and girls with their mothers for appropriate typing to occur?
a. gender schema c. psychodynamic
b. social cognitive d. cognitive-developmental

 

 

 

  1. According to which theory do children form concepts about gender and then fit their behavior to those concepts?
a. gender schema c. psychodynamic
b. social cognitive d. cognitive-developmental

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which theory asserts that children observe the behavior of adult role models and come to assume that their behavior should conform to that of adults of the same gender?
a. gender schema c. psychodynamic
b. social cognitive d. cognitive-developmental

 

 

 

 

  1. Which theory proposes that children use gender as one way of organizing their perceptions of the world?
a. gender schema c. psychodynamic
b. social cognitive d. cognitive-developmental

 

 

 

  1. The knowledge that one is female or male is referred to as ____.
a. gender permanence c. gender constancy
b. gender stability d. gender identity

 

 

 

  1. The concept that one’s gender is unchanging is referred to as ____.
a. gender permanence c. gender constancy
b. gender stability d. gender identity

 

 

 

  1. The concept that one’s gender remains the same despite changes in appearance or behavior is referred to as ____.
a. gender permanence c. gender constancy
b. gender stability d. gender identity

 

 

 

  1. Girls and boys typically have less polarized gender-role concepts if ____.
a. they have teachers who are males
b. they have older siblings of the opposite gender
c. their mothers work outside of the home
d. they come from a single parent household

 

 

 

  1. Children with self-concepts that are inconsistent with the prominent gender schema of their culture are likely to develop ____.
a. anxiety c. depression
b. obsessive compulsive disorder d. low self-esteem

 

 

 

 

  1. Which scenario illustrates the psychodynamic theory of gender-typed behavior?
a. Four-year-old Sean states to his father, “Someday I will be a dad, but I will never be a mom and have babies.”
b. Four-year-old Sharon exclaims to her mother, “Mommy, look! I baked a cake, just like you do!”
c. Three-year-old Dan feels proud of himself as he flexes his biceps and says to himself, “Look at my big muscles!”
d. Three year old Nila shouts at her father, “Go away daddy; I want mommy!”

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which scenario illustrates the cognitive-development theory of gender-typed behavior?
a. Four-year-old Sean states to his father, “Someday I will be a dad, but I will never be a mom and have babies.”
b. Four-year-old Sharon exclaims to her mother, “Mommy, look! I baked a cake, just like you do!”
c. Three-year-old Dan feels proud of himself as he flexes his biceps and says to himself, “Look at my big muscles!”
d. Three-year-old Nila shouts at her father, “Go away daddy; I want mommy!”

 

 

 

  1. Which scenario illustrates the social cognitive theory of gender-typed behavior?
a. Four-year-old Sean states to his father, “Someday I will be a dad, but I will never be a mom and have babies.”
b. Four-year-old Sharon exclaims to her mother, “Mommy, look! I baked a cake, just like you do!”
c. Three-year-old Dan feels proud of himself as he flexes his biceps and says to himself, “Look at my big muscles!”
d. Three-year-old Nila shouts at her father, “Go away daddy; I want mommy!”

 

 

 

  1. Which scenario illustrates the gender-schema theory of gender-typed behavior?
a. Four-year-old Sean states to his father, “Someday I will be a dad, but I will never be a mom and have babies.”
b. Four-year-old Sharon exclaims to her mother, “Mommy, look! I baked a cake, just like you do!”
c. Three-year-old Dan feels proud of himself as he flexes his biceps and says to himself, “Look at my big muscles!”
d. Three-year-old Nila shouts at her father, “Go away daddy; I want mommy!”

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. According to Rhoda Kellogg, what are the four stages of drawing that children progress through and at what ages do children typically enter each stage?

 

 

  1. What was the three-mountain test designed to measure and what did Piaget conclude from it?

 

 

  1. What are the six subscales of the HOME inventory that are used for evaluating a child’s home environment?

 

 

 

  1. Graduate student Jasmine is testing the memory functions of three- to five-year-old children. What factors should Jasmine be aware of that will affect the memory of a child?

 

 

  1. What are the typical lengths and styles of sentences formed by 2 1/2 year olds, 3 year olds and 4 year olds? Provide an example for each.

 

 

  1. According to Baumrind, what are the four parenting styles and how do they rate in terms of restrictiveness and warmth?

 

 

  1. According to Piaget, list and describe the four types of play in which children engage.

 

 

  1. According to Mildred Parten, what are the six categories of play in which young children engage?

 

 

  1. What are the five ways in which depictions of violence in the media contribute to violence?

 

 

  1. According to Kohlberg, what three concepts lead to the emergence of gender-typing? Provide an example for each.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 5: Social Development: Middle Childhood

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Boys are slightly heavier and taller than girls between the ages of 9 and 14.

 

 

  1. During middle childhood, neural pathways that connect the cerebellum to the cortex become more myelinated.

 

 

  1. Dyslexia is a motor disorder characterized by letter reversals, mirror reading, slow reading, and reduced comprehension.

 

 

  1. Placing objects in a series is termed decentration.

 

 

  1. Psychologists use the term memory to refer to the processes of storing and retrieving information.

 

 

  1. When we look at an object and then blink our eyes, the visual impression of the object lasts for about ten seconds in what is called sensory memory.

 

 

 

  1. Children who read at home during the school years show better reading skills in school and more positive attitudes toward reading.

 

 

  1. Thurstone suggested that primary mental abilities are dependent on each other.

 

 

  1. Gardner argued that there are many intelligences, and that each has its neurological bases in its own parts of the brain.

 

 

  1. The average IQ score in the United States is close to 100.

 

 

  1. In cultural-familial intellectual deficiency, children are not biologically normal, and develop age-appropriate behavior at a slower pace because of an impoverished home environment.

 

 

  1. Social cognition refers to perception of the social world.

 

 

  1. As children undergo the physical developments of middle childhood, more abstract internal traits, or personality traits, begin to play a role.

 

 

 

  1. Girls tend to have more positive self-concepts than boys regarding reading, math, and physical appearance.

 

 

  1. It has been estimated that around 12% of children are seriously depressed in any given year.

 

 

 

  1. Perfectionistic children may be depressed because they cannot meet their own standards.

 

 

  1. Daughters of employed women are more achievement-oriented and set higher career goals for themselves than daughters of nonworking women.

 

 

 

  1. Families exert the most powerful influence on a child during his or her first few years.

 

 

  1. In the early years of middle childhood, friendships are based on proximity.

 

 

  1. Diet is a major risk factor in obesity.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Walt is 10 years old. He is at the ball field and decides to try to walk the top of the fence in front of his teammates. Given the goals of middle childhood, what is one reason he did this?
a. To get attention from his coach
b. To show he was brave enough to be team captain
c. To get acceptance by his teammates
d. To show he was ready for organized sports

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following milestones typically occurs at the end of the middle childhood stage?
a. The start of school c. The search for identity
b. A strong growth spurt d. The ability to jump rope

 

 

 

 

  1. In comparison to early childhood, how many calories do children in middle childhood normally need?
a. 200-600 more c. 800-1200 more
b. 200-600 less d. 800-1200 less

 

 

 

 

  1. At approximately what age do boys begin to show increased muscle while girls show increased fat?
a. 9 c. 11
b. 10 d. 12

 

 

 

  1. Based on Figure 5.1 in the text, which of the following ethnic groups shows a higher percentage of girls who are overweight in comparison to boys?
a. Asian American c. European American
b. African American d. Mexican American

 

 

 

 

  1. Kali is six years old and wants to learn to do competitive gymnastics at the local dance center. What do you tell her?
a. She has the balance and coordination she needs at this stage.
b. She is almost there, but doesn’t quite have the balance and coordination she needs.
c. She will not have the balance and coordination she needs until she reaches adolescence.
d. She has had the coordination and balance she needs since she was four years old.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be easiest for girls to do during middle childhood?
a. Swing a bat. c. Throw a ball.
b. Do a somersault. d. Do a handstand.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following sports would promote the greatest amount of aerobic exercise?
a. baseball c. soccer
b. football d. volleyball

 

 

 

  1. David is eight years old and is showing signs of trouble in school. He was doing okay until he had to start reading longer passages in reading class. He also has trouble concentrating on the material and staying in his seat for the whole class. Which of the following could be affecting him?
a. ADD c. OCD
b. ADHD d. ODD

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be diagnosed with ADHD?
a. A seven year old boy c. A fifteen year old boy
b. A seven year old girl d. A fifteen year old girl

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the current theory about why ADHD occurs?
a. poor diet c. food additives
b. brain chemistry d. too much sugar

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be used to help children with ADHD concentrate?
a. a depressant c. a vitamin supplement
b. an antipsychotic d. a stimulant

 

 

 

 

  1. Children with dyslexia often have trouble in school while performing which of the following functions?
a. sitting still and concentrating c. drawing detailed pictures
b. performing coordinated moves in gym d. writing sentences correctly

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following areas of the brain has been implicated in translating written material?
a. hypothalamus c. basal ganglia
b. angular gyrus d. cerebellum

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following represents Piaget’s stage characterized by flexible, reversible thought concerning tangible objects and events?
a. preconventional c. sensorimotor
b. conventional d. concrete operations

 

 

 

  1. Steven has a problem on his test that says: “Line 1 is longer than line 2, and line 2 is longer than line 3; is line 3 longer than line 1?” Which concept is this question testing?
a. decentration c. seriation
b. transitivity d. conservation

 

 

 

  1. Pattie has been asked to place all of her dolls in order from smallest to largest. Which concept will she use?
a. transitivity c. conservation
b. decentration d. seriation

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would occur as a child obeys a rule without understanding the reason for the rule?
a. moral realism c. immanent justice
b. objective morality d. autonomous morality

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following stages of moral development would a child be in when he can differentiate between the consequences for an accident and an intentional act?
a. moral realism c. immanent justice
b. objective morality d. autonomous morality

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following stages of moral development is characterized by considering the meaning of social rules?
a. moral realism c. immanent justice
b. objective morality d. autonomous morality

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would represent Piaget’s views on autonomous morality?
a. Casey follows the rules because her mother says so.
b. Casey follows the rules because she has to.
c. Casey follows the rules because she does not want to get punished.
d. Casey follows the rules because she recognizes why these rules were formed.

 

 

 

  1. During which Kohlberg stage would a child look at how a behavior reflects showing respect for authority?
a. Stage 1 c. Stage 3
b. Stage 2 d. Stage 4

 

 

 

  1. Which Kohlberg stage would look primarily at avoiding punishment?
a. Stage 1 c. Stage 5
b. Stage 3 d. Stage 6

 

 

  1. Which Kohlberg stage would take into account both human need and maintaining order?
a. Stage 3 c. Stage 5
b. Stage 4 d. Stage 6

 

 

  1. On her way to school, Vicky saw an older woman fall and lose all of her groceries. She knew that if she stopped to help pick them up, she would be late for school and would not be allowed to play at recess, but she also knew that the woman needed some help. She decided to help the woman. Which stage of moral development is she operating under?
a. objective c. conventional
b. preconventional d. postconventional

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the three elements in information processing?
a. learning, remembering, and behaving
b. learning, remembering, and problem solving
c. learning, problem solving, and behaving
d. remembering, problem solving, and behaving

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by the ability to focus one’s attention and screen out distractions?
a. sensory memory c. problem solving
b. selective attention d. remembering

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following occurs as a child is able to attend to more than one aspect of a problem at one time?
a. seriation c. transition
b. conservation d. encoding

 

 

 

  1. Which memory structure holds a sensory stimulus for 30 seconds after the trace decays?
a. sensory c. long-term
b. working d. elaborative

 

 

 

  1. Adele is at a party and is meeting new people. As she is introduced to each person, she tries to think of something to associate their names with so she can remember them. What is Adele doing?
a. encoding the information c. retrieving the information
b. rehearsing the information d. repeating the information

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of rehearsing?
a. writing note cards c. visualizing what someone is wearing
b. repeating a name over and over d. coding information into blocks

 

 

 

  1. Kaitlyn must put her new vocabulary words into sentences that correctly show the meaning. What is her teacher trying to develop?
a. scaffolding c. elaborative strategy
b. zone of proximal development d. metacognition

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the term for awareness and control of one’s cognitive abilities?
a. metacognition c. elaborative strategy
b. encoding d. metamemory

 

 

 

  1. The principal is investigating how a first-grade fight started and asks Sally if Rob hit Ben first. Was this a proper question?
a. Yes; it gave Sally the opportunity to give a short answer.
b. Yes; it provided Sally with a leading question..
c. No; it didn’t allow Sally the opportunity to give a short answer.
d. No; it provided Sally with a leading question.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of the word-recognition method?
a. Sounding out a word
b. Flashing different colors on the screen for identification
c. Showing the word repeatedly
d. Reading words with pictures

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists defined intelligence as the capacity to understand the world and cope with its challenges?
a. Binet c. Wechsler
b. Spearman d. Sternberg

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by a child’s acquired performance or competencies?
a. intelligence c. learning ability
b. primary mental abilities d. achievement

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following Thurstone abilities would be in effect when a child works on a timed word puzzle?
a. memory c. word fluency
b. inductive reasoning d. verbal meaning

 

 

 

 

  1. Alli is trying to formulate a sentence to show that she knows how to use the word “instant” in context. Which Thurstone ability is she using?
a. memory c. word fluency
b. verbal meaning d. deductive reasoning

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following represents the three parts of Sternberg’s theory?
a. analytical intelligence, practical intelligence, and creative intelligence
b. analytical intelligence, primary intelligence, and creative intelligence
c. interpersonal intelligence, practical intelligence, and naturalist intelligence
d. emotional intelligence, analytical intelligence, and practical intelligence

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists proposed a theory designed around a common underlying factor of intelligence, called g?
a. Spearman c. Sternberg
b. Thurstone d. Wechsler

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists proposed a musical intelligence?
a. Thurstone c. Sternberg
b. Binet d. Gardner

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a ratio obtained by a score on an intelligence test?
a. MA c. CA
b. IQ d. MSQ

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What would an MA of 16 mean?
a. The individual is 16 years old at the time of the test.
b. The test is designed for 16 year olds.
c. The individual got 16 questions right on a sliding scale.
d. The individual is functioning intellectually as a 16 year old.

 

 

 

  1. If a child answers that people go to the store to get food to eat, which SBIS level is being tested?
a. 2 c. 9
b. 4 d. adult

 

 

 

  1. How is an intelligence quotient computed?
a. An individual’s mental age is multiplied by their chronological age.
b. An individual’s chronological age is divided by their mental age.
c. An individual’s mental age is subtracted from their chronological age.
d. An individual’s mental age is divided by their chronological age.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of a performance task?
a. Describing how to put blocks together c. Stating how two things are alike
b. Doing a mathematical problem d. Putting blocks together

 

 

 

  1. Why do some criticize the cultural fairness of intelligence tests?
a. Certain cultures score lower on mathematical and linguistic intelligences.
b. Certain cultures have different strengths in areas that predict academic success.
c. Certain cultures evaluate intelligence through other measures.
d. Certain cultures do not have the experiences required for some test questions.

 

 

 

 

  1. When does the first major intellectual growth spurt occur?
a. Around 4 years old c. Around 6 years old
b. Around 5 years old d. Around 7 years old

 

 

 

  1. What is the general average IQ score in the United States?
a. 95 c. 105
b. 100 d. 110

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is thought to cause the intellectual deficiencies in Down syndrome?
a. phenylketonuria c. impoverished home environment
b. brain damage in the womb d. chromosomal abnormalities

 

 

 

 

  1. Kevin took an intelligence test in fifth grade and scored a 131. What does this mean?
a. Kevin is considered intellectually deficient.
b. Kevin is considered average.
c. Kevin is considered high average.
d. Kevin is considered gifted.

 

 

 

  1. What is one reason Asian American students might work harder in school?
a. In their culture, academic success is attributed to natural ability.
b. In their culture, academic success is rewarded.
c. In their culture, academic success is rare and highly prized.
d. In their culture, academic success is attributed to hard work.

 

 

 

 

  1. Ed is working on a logic puzzle and decides to brainstorm ideas rather than take a methodical approach. What type of thinking is Ed using?
a. deductive reasoning c. convergent thinking
b. inductive reasoning d. divergent thinking

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following will likely have the greatest chance of having similar IQ scores?
a. Siblings reared together
b. Biological parent and child living together
c. Adoptive siblings reared together
d. Identical twins reared together

 

 

 

  1. Which theorist looked at middle childhood as a time of developing competence?
a. Freud c. Piaget
b. Erikson d. Bandura

 

 

 

  1. In which Selman level would Mary begin to consider the point of view of another when discussing an issue?
a. Level 1 c. Level 3
b. Level 2 d. Level 4

 

 

 

 

  1. At what point do children determine that just because they see someone else’s point of view doesn’t mean they will come to an agreement?
a. Level 1 c. Level 3
b. Level 2 d. Level 4

 

 

 

  1. What does the Twenty Statements Test have to do with development of self?
a. It investigates the development of personality disorders.
b. It investigates the progression of egotistical thinking.
c. It investigates the development of concrete external traits.
d. It investigates the development of abstract internal traits.

 

 

 

  1. Which question does the Twenty Statements Test ask?
a. What do I like? c. Who am I?
b. Why am I? d. What do I do?

 

 

 

  1. Larry is sitting on the sidelines at soccer practice because he stopped trying. He thought the other boys had more ability than he did, and he felt there was no sense in trying because he would never catch up. This is an example of which concept?
a. learned helplessness c. childhood depression
b. internal locus of control d. fatalism

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of learned helplessness?
a. Cody keeps trying to pass a math test by studying.
b. Cody decides he doesn’t really need math and stops studying.
c. Cody decides he can pass the math test if he tries hard enough.
d. Cody stops trying to pass the math test because he is not good at math.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characteristic of conduct disorder?
a. inability to pay attention c. external attribution
b. withdrawal from social activity d. fear of separation

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characteristic of childhood depression?
a. early sexual activity c. fear of separation
b. low academic achievement d. internal attribution

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in childhood depression and how?
a. Dopamine is overutilized. c. Serotonin is overutilized.
b. Dopamine is underutilized. d. Serotonin is underutilized.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following often results in school refusal?
a. conduct disorder c. depression
b. generalized anxiety disorder d. separation anxiety disorder

 

 

 

 

  1. Why is SAD an issue in middle childhood?
a. Children need to learn to be independent.
b. Children need to be able to attend school.
c. Children need to be able to adjust to daycare.
d. Children need to be able to play and socialize.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a recommendation for parents with a child with SAD?
a. Try to keep the issue quiet so it doesn’t get around the school.
b. Allow the child to stay home until she feels comfortable going back to school.
c. Tell the child it is all in her head and that she needs to go to school.
d. Gently but firmly take the child to school each day.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a typical interaction between a father and child in middle childhood?
a. Cooking a meal together.
b. Attending a teacher conference.
c. Taking the child to a doctor’s appointment.
d. Going out for an ice cream

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of coregulation?
a. Asking your daughter what she wants for dinner.
b. Having your daughter sit in the kitchen and play while you fix dinner.
c. Bringing your daughter to a friend’s house and walking her inside.
d. Allowing your daughter to ride home on the bus to a friend’s house.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the most likely relationship between a mother going back to work and delinquency?
a. The child rebels from the lack of a traditional family set up.
b. The child is unable to properly attach to the mother.
c. The child is left unsupervised more often.
d. The child feels abandoned.

 

 

 

  1. Someone who wishes to be a person of the opposite gender is called a ____.
a. lesbian c. bisexual
b. homosexual d. transsexual

 

 

 

  1. What were the findings of the research by Patterson (2006)?
a. Psychological adjustment of children raised by same sex parents was comparable to children raised by heterosexual parents.
b. Psychological adjustment of children raised by same sex parents was not as healthy as children raised by heterosexual parents.
c. Psychological adjustment of children raised by same sex parents was healthier than children raised by heterosexual parents.
d. Psychological adjustment of children raised by same sex parents was very different from children raised by heterosexual parents.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the critical time for problems for children of divorce?
a. The first few days after the breakup c. The first five years after the breakup
b. The first year after the breakup d. Until the child has children

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a tip of the AACAP?
a. Do not tell the child until the breakup occurs.
b. Explain as fully as possible.
c. Put a positive spin on the information.
d. Do not discuss each other’s faults with the children.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the rate of children in stepfamily situations?
a. More than one quarter c. More than one third
b. More than one half d. More than one tenth

 

 

 

  1. Why do evolutionary psychologists theorize that stepparents are less devoted to rearing other people’s children?
a. The primary motivation is continuation of their own genes.
b. The primary motivation is to start a new family.
c. The primary motivation is to help the parent adjust to the new circumstances.
d. The primary motivation is to reduce strain on the new family.

 

 

 

 

  1. What do children look for in a friend when they are 8-11 years old?
a. proximity c. shared interests
b. shared activities d. parent approval

 

 

 

 

  1. During which Selman stage would a child choose someone who will play the games they want to play?
a. Momentary physical interaction c. Fair-weather cooperation
b. One-way assistance d. Intimate and mutual sharing

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by an event that occurs because of the behavior of those who expect it to occur?
a. pygmalion effect c. magical thinking
b. self-fulfilling prophecy d. attribution

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a good way for teachers to motivate all students to do well?
a. Remove social interaction.
b. Create firm long-term goals.
c. Encourage students to reach beyond reasonable goals.
d. Provide safety for diversity.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by paying more attention to boys in math class?
a. remediation c. sexual harassment
b. sexism d. self-fulfilling prophecy

 

 

 

  1. What did the CDC information in 2008 state about how many school children are considered overweight?
a. 16% c. 32%
b. 25% d. 40%

 

 

 

  1. During the concrete operation stage, which type of reasoning do children begin to use?
a. perceptive c. logical
b. singular d. intuitive

 

 

 

  1. What did Kohlberg emphasize as particularly important with regard to moral development?
a. To present a moral map primarily through parenting
b. To reinforce proper moral behavior through the lens of society
c. To view the moral world from the perspective of another person
d. To provide the rules to morality through cultural norms

 

 

 

  1. Those who show autonomous morality ____.
a. can focus simultaneously on multiple dimensions
b. avoid weighing pros and cons
c. rely primarily on thought processes
d. consider social norms in decision-making

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a way a preschooler would identify himself?
a. I am happy in school. c. I am in preschool.
b. I have a big television d. I love art.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a description more typical of a child in middle childhood then early childhood?
a. I have a television. c. I go to school.
b. I have a mother. d. I like school.

 

 

 

 

  1. Erin, a seven-year-old, won’t talk to anyone except a select few close friends. What is the most likely developmental reason?
a. Erin is scared of her parents. c. Erin is too focused on schoolwork.
b. Erin has stage fright. d. Erin has a social phobia.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the video on selective mutism, who will Erin speak to?
a. Her sister c. Her brother
b. Her teacher d. Her friend

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is one aspect of selective mutism?
a. Defiance of parent authority c. Strong anxiety
b. Attention-seeking behavior d. Willfulness

 

 

 

  1. What is the proposed cause of selective mutism?
a. Genetics c. Shy parents
b. Abuse d. There is no proposed cause.

 

 

 

  1. In the video on bullying, who targeted Felicia?
a. A teacher c. An older child
b. A neighborhood boy d. A friend

 

 

 

 

  1. When addressed with the school, what did the school do in Felicia’s case?
a. They found the bully and dealt with her.
b. They conducted bullying seminars to help all of the children.
c. They did not see a problem.
d. They called the parents of the bully to handle the issue.

 

 

 

  1. According to studies, how often are children in kindergarten and first grade bullied?
a. Every 3-6 minutes c. Every 3-6 days
b. Every 30-60 minutes d. Every 3-6 hours

 

 

 

  1. Why do children often say that emotional bullying is worse than physical bullying?
a. It is harder to run from emotional bullying.
b. The kids can keep it up without getting caught.
c. It is harder to prove.
d. Its effect are much longer lasting.

 

 

 

  1. Which of Selman’s Stages is occurring when a child will play a game that a friend chooses so she can choose the next game?
a. One-way assistance c. Intimate and mutual sharing
b. Fair-weather cooperation d. Autonomous interdependence

 

 

 

 

  1. Kellie misses playing with Paula, but recognizes that they both have different interests now and will probably grow apart. This is an example of which Selman stage?
a. Intimate sharing and mutual sharing c. Autonomous interdependence
b. Momentary physical interaction d. One-way assistance

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would need to be considered when measuring school readiness?
a. Teacher expectations c. Language skills
b. Parent involvement d. Anxiety

 

 

 

  1. What is one characteristic of an effective teacher?
a. Give general feedback c. Utilize one method of teaching
b. Promote independent learning d. Asks questions

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. Describe the various components of nutrition in middle childhood.

 

 

  1. What are the three applications of Piaget’s theory of education?

 

 

  1. What are the three structures of memory?

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between metacognition and metamemory.

 

 

 

  1. List Gardner’s nine intelligences.

 

 

 

  1. How do boys and girls differ in self-concept in middle childhood?

 

 

  1. What requirements need to be in place for a diagnosis of separation anxiety disorder?

 

 

 

  1. What is meant by “Generation Ex”?

 

 

  1. Name Selman’s five stages in children’s changing concepts of friendship.

 

 

  1. Describe the characteristics often found in bullies.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 6 – Adolescence

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Girls who mature early tend to have lower self-esteem than girls who mature late.

 

 

  1. Primary sex characteristics are physical indicators of sexual maturation that are not directly involved in reproduction.

 

 

 

  1. Menarche commonly occurs between the ages of 11 and 14.

 

 

  1. Death rates are low in adolescents, but they are nearly twice as great for female adolescents as male adolescents.

 

 

 

  1. On weekends, many adolescents try to catch up on sleep lost during the week.

 

 

  1. Bulimia nervosa is a life-threatening eating disorder characterized by extreme fear of a distorted body image.

 

 

  1. The transition from elementary school is more difficult for boys than girls.

 

 

  1. Because of the personal fable, many adolescents become action heroes, at least in their own minds.

 

 

  1. Boys begin to outperform girls on many types of visuospatial tasks starting at age 8 or 9.

 

 

  1. In Canada, reading is viewed as a mainly masculine activity, with boys traditionally surpassing girls in reading abilities.

 

 

  1. Males are somewhat superior with regard to using visuospatial skills.

 

 

  1. For about the last 50 years, educators have believed that female adolescents outperform male adolescents in mathematics.

 

 

  1. Kohlberg’s Stage 5 thinking relies on supposed universal ethical principles, such as those of human life, individual dignity, justice, and reciprocity.

 

 

 

  1. Individuals with mature moral judgments are no more likely to engage in moral behavior.

 

 

  1. Kohlberg believed that the stages of moral development follow the unfolding of innate sequences and are therefore universal.

 

 

  1. The transition to a new school setting often leads to a raise in grades and involvement in activities.

 

 

  1. Most intervention efforts are introduced early to students who may drop out of high school before it’s too late.

 

 

  1. Although relationships with parents remain positive, the role of peers increase in adolescence.

 

 

 

  1. Peer pressure is fairly week in early adolescence.

 

 

  1. Relationships with parents have no effect on sexual activity at an early age.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following theorists proposed a period of turmoil and conflict?
a. Hall c. Freud
b. Erikson d. Piaget

 

 

 

  1. What is the system in which glands regulate each other functioning through a series of hormonal messages?
a. puberty c. asynchronous growth
b. feedback loop d. epiphyseal closure

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic?
a. breast development c. pubic hair
b. vocal features d. Fallopian tubes

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how many inches do girls grow during their largest growth spurt?
a. two c. four
b. three d. five

 

 

 

  1. Menarch commonly occurs around what age?
a. 8-10 c. 11-13
b. 9-11 d. 14-15

 

 

 

  1. What is believed to trigger pubertal changes such as menarche in girls?
a. age c. weight
b. height d. breast development

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following could be a result of early maturity in males?
a. aggression c. low self-esteem
b. low popularity d. loneliness

 

 

 

  1. David was speaking with his mother on the phone recently and she commented on how much his voice was beginning to sound like his father’s. This is an example of which of the following?
a. primary sex characteristics c. asynchronous growth
b. secondary sex characteristics d. feedback loop

 

 

 

  1. In reviewing a recent study, it was noted that 15-year-old boys were 6” taller, and girls were 3” taller than their counterparts 30 years earlier. What would this be termed?
a. asynchronous growth c. adolescent growth spurt
b. secular trend d. epiphyseal closure

 

 

 

  1. Which area of the brain is believed to be malfunctioning when adolescents fail to show adult judgment, insight, and reasoning abilities?
a. cerebral cortex c. frontal lobe
b. amygdala d. temporal lobe

 

 

 

 

  1. By what age are girls and boys most satisfied with their bodies?
a. 15 c. 17
b. 16 d. 18

 

 

 

  1. How are the frontal lobes of an adolescent brain different from those of an adult?
a. more active c. slower processing
b. less active d. faster processing

 

 

 

 

  1. What percent of American adolescents have at least one serious health problem?
a. 15% c. 23%
b. 18% d. 32%

 

 

 

  1. About how many hours of sleep do adolescents need per night?
a. 7 c. 10
b. 9 d. 11

 

 

 

 

  1. Mike’s parents understand that at 16, he needs more rest than he is getting. They have a strict bed time of 10:00 p.m. on school nights. Unfortunately, Mike is wide awake and cannot sleep. Which of the following explains this situation?
a. puberty c. increased testosterone levels
b. phase delay d. sleep deprivation

 

 

 

  1. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent cycles of binge eating and which of the following?
a. depression c. fasting
b. purging d. anxiety

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a concern in females in helping to prevent osteoporosis?
a. zinc c. iron
b. magnesium d. calcium

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following has been linked to chronic illness in adulthood?
a. skipping breakfast c. irregular eating habits
b. eating foods high in calcium d. high fat intake

 

 

 

  1. What is the upper limit on calories needed by females during the adolescent growth spurt?
a. 1800 c. 2200
b. 2000 d. 2400

 

 

 

 

  1. Which theoretical orientation looks at anorexia nervosa as an issue with separation?
a. Psychoanalytic c. Cognitive
b. Evolutionary d. Humanistic

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be used to treat anorexia nervosa?
a. antipsychotic medication c. antidepressant medication
b. antianxiety medication d. antiepileptic medication

 

 

 

  1. Psychoanalytic theory suggests that anorexia nervosa provides young women coping mechanisms by doing which of the following?
a. Giving them control over their food intake
b. Keeping breasts and hips flat to make them more asexual
c. Ignoring the social ideal projected in television and magazines
d. Moving out and living on their own

 

 

 

 

  1. Psychoanalytic theory suggests that anorexic young girls are most prone to ____.
a. anger c. sexual fears
b. depression d. substance abuse

 

 

 

  1. In terms of adolescent cognitive abilities, the picture for ____ is more complex than other abilities, with females excelling in some areas and males in others.
a. oral comprehension c. reading
b. visuospatial skills d. mathematics

 

 

 

  1. The stage of formal operations begins at what age for the majority of children in developed nations?
a. 8 c. 12
b. 10 d. 14

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following pertains to what might be?
a. hypothetical thinking c. inductive reasoning
b. deductive reasoning d. symbolic representation

 

 

 

 

  1. At what age are children normally able to begin to understand the meaning of x in algebraic equations?
a. 7 c. 11
b. 9 d. 13

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following requires adolescents to perform mental operations with symbols?
a. Algebra c. Geometry
b. Calculus d. Trigonometry

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be an example of imaginary audience?
a. Adolescents believe no one is paying attention to them.
b. Adolescents believe they are able to manipulate others.
c. Adolescents believe they are the center of attention and adored by admirers.
d. Adolescents believe they are the center of attention when they make a mistake.

 

 

 

 

  1. Ted is 17-years-old and has been drinking and driving. He does not believe anything can happen to him. This is an example of which of the following?
a. storm and stress c. imaginary audience
b. symbolic interaction d. personal fable

 

 

 

  1. At around what age do boys begin to outperform girls in visuospatial tasks?
a. 8 c. 12
b. 10 d. 14

 

 

 

  1. In which of the following skills do females surpass males at all ages?
a. analytic reasoning c. visuospatial ability
b. verbal ability d. mathematical ability

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists did research on mathematic performance based on gender?
a. Hyde c. Piaget
b. Kohlberg d. Erikson

 

 

 

  1. Ellen and Paul are working together on a school project where they need to imagine how a set of shapes can be manipulated to create a new shape. The first step is to imagine this in their heads and then put it on paper. Paul is able to do this much quicker than Ellen. Which ability are they using?
a. imaginary c. visuospatial
b. verbal d. mathematical

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following utilizes deductive reasoning?
a. preconventional moral reasoning c. conventional cognitive reasoning
b. postconventional moral reasoning d. preconventional cognitive reasoning

 

 

 

 

  1. By age 16, what percent of adolescents show Kohlberg’s Stage 6 reasoning?
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following can be concluded from studies on moral judgment (Commons et al., 2006; Rest, 1983)?
a. Preconventional moral judgment is utilized most in adolescence.
b. Postconventional moral judgment rises sharply around age 7.
c. Postconventional moral judgment is utilized more than other moral judgment at age 16.
d. Conventional moral judgment accounts for the largest amount of moral statements at age

 

 

 

 

  1. Kohlberg’s Stage 4 thinking is defined as which of the following?
a. Moral judgments derived from personal values
b. Ethical principles that include human life and individual dignity
c. Moral judgments emphasizing law and order
d. Moral judgments emphasizing caring and concern for others

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is thought to help increase the level of moral reasoning in juvenile delinquents?
a. Use of symbolism in a group setting
b. Use of deductive reasoning skills in a group setting
c. Use of legal terminology in a group setting
d. Use of moral dilemmas in a group setting

 

 

 

 

  1. What is one reason girls have a more difficult time in middle school than boys?
a. They face gender bias in the classroom.
b. They face less acceptance from older adolescents.
c. They face less attention from older adolescents.
d. They face more attention from older adolescents.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following changes in middle school goes against normal adolescent development?
a. increased autonomy c. increased school activities
b. increased peer socialization d. increased teacher control

 

 

 

 

  1. According to a study cited in your text (National Center for Education Statistics, 2007), which of the following groups has the highest drop out rate?
a. European American c. Latin American
b. African American d. Asian American

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following age groups has the highest percent of all dropouts?
a. 15 year olds c. 17 year olds
b. 16 year olds d. 18 year olds

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following tests is often used to determine career interests?
a. Holland Survey c. Harter Personality Inventory
b. NEOPIR d. MMPI

 

 

 

 

  1. According to a study cited in your text (National Center for Education Statistics, 2007), which age group is be the least likely to drop out?
a. 15 year olds c. 18 year olds
b. 17 year olds d. 19 year olds

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a good occupation for someone who likes to work with math and details?
a. enterprising c. investigative
b. realistic d. conventional

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following careers would go well with someone who is high in a social career personality type?
a. accountant c. veterinarian
b. scientist d. nurse

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following types would fit well in higher-level education and research?
a. realistic c. conventional
b. investigative d. social

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following high school students would be most likely to have a job?
a. A female junior from a lower income family
b. A male junior from a lower income family
c. A female senior from a middle-class family
d. A male senior from a middle class family

 

 

 

  1. Your friends have a daughter who is just starting her first job in her junior year in high school. You have had three teenagers who worked and your friend is asking for advice. What is one piece of advice that most research suggests?
a. Make sure it is a better paying job.
b. Do not let them have the car.
c. Limit the number of hours they work each week.
d. Encourage them to work longer hours on weekends.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by gaining an understanding of who you are and what you stand for?
a. identity diffusion c. psychological moratorium
b. ego identity d. identity crisis

 

 

 

  1. Kevin is in his junior year in high school and doesn’t know what he wants to do. He has no major interests and is not involved in activities that he cares about in school. What is Kevin going through according to Erikson?
a. psychological moratorium c. identity crisis
b. identity diffusion d. identity status

 

 

 

  1. Which identity status would involve making a commitment without considering alternatives?
a. identity achievement c. foreclosure
b. moratorium d. identity diffusion

 

 

  1. Which of the following identity statuses would be most applicable for an adolescent who is exploring his choices, but has no commitment?
a. identity achievement c. foreclosure
b. moratorium d. identity diffusion

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be of the most concern with regard to identity development?
a. identity achievement c. foreclosure
b. moratorium d. identity diffusion

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following students would most likely have the strongest sense of identity?
a. A first year college student in a first major
b. A second year college student switching majors
c. A third year college student in the same major
d. A fourth year college student who switched majors

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would go along with Erikson’s assumptions of identity development?
a. Females are more concerned with work.
b. Males are more concerned with family.
c. Males are more concerned with relationships.
d. Females are more concerned with relationships.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the name for Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development?
a. psychological moratorium vs. role diffusion
b. identity diffusion vs. identity crisis
c. ego identity vs. role diffusion
d. ego identity vs. identity crisis

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following defines a commitment made by an individual without considering alternatives?
a. foreclosure c. identity diffusion
b. moratorium d. identity achievement

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following Harter factors would coincide with the following statement: I feel capable of accomplishing what I am asked to do.
a. conduct c. job competence
b. romantic appeal d. peer support

 

 

  1. Annie is 13 years old, and does not feel very good about herself. She has just started attending a new middle school, and thinks she is too fat. Which of the following would provide the most help in getting Annie to feel better about herself?
a. Meeting new friends who feel the same way
b. Repeatedly telling Annie she is not fat
c. Parent support with positive regard
d. Finding a new boyfriend

 

 

 

  1. Imaginary audience and personal fable are examples of which of the following?
a. adolescent egocentrism c. hypothetical thinking
b. Piaget’s formal-operational stage d. verbal ability

 

 

 

  1. According to Goldstein, activities are culturally defined as masculine, feminine, or neutral. How does this study apply to the difference in verbal ability between boys and girls?
a. Culturally masculine tasks are encouraged for girls.
b. Culturally feminine tasks are encouraged for boys.
c. Culturally neutral tasks are encouraged for females.
d. Culturally feminine tasks are encouraged for females.

 

 

 

  1. Postconventional thought first appears at what stage of development?
a. childhood c. adolescence
b. infancy d. young adulthood

 

 

 

  1. Kaylee has attended the same elementary school for Grades 1-4. Her family is moving due to her father’s job, and she will enter a new school during her last year of elementary school. Kaylee will likely experience which of the following?
a. An increase in social behaviors c. A decrease in stressors
b. A decrease in self-esteem d. An increase in grade point average

 

 

 

 

  1. According to a study done by Lever in 2004, what are two predictors of an increased school dropout risk?
a. Criminal behavior and substance abuse
b. Finding employment and low-income households
c. Excessive absenteeism and reading below grade level
d. Substance abuse and excessive absenteeism

 

 

 

  1. The Dictionary of Occupational Titles lists more than 20,000 occupations compiled from the U.S. Department of Labor. What three components do most adolescents use to pick one of those careers?
a. Personality, experience, and opportunity
b. Guidance counselor, vocational testing, and experience
c. Personality test, television, and social approval
d. Social approval, vocational testing, and personality

 

 

 

  1. One study found that there were 2 to 3 million adolescents working illegally. Middle-class teenagers were more likely to be employed. What were lower-income teenagers more likely to do?
a. Make more money. c. Be truant from school.
b. Work longer hours. d. Gain higher self-esteem.

 

 

 

 

  1. At least two studies have found that with the growing cognitive maturity of young adolescents they become increasingly aware of the differences between their perceptions of themselves and their real selves. What can occur as a result of this awareness?
a. Increase in personal fable beliefs c. Increase in imaginary audience views
b. Decrease in self-esteem d. Decrease in adolescent egocentrism

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is associated most often with depression in adolescents?
a. Conflict with mothers c. Conflict with fathers
b. Overbearing mothers d. Conflict with siblings

 

 

 

 

  1. At which time is conflict with parents most common?
a. Pre-adolescence c. Mid-adolescence
b. Early adolescence d. Late adolescence

 

 

 

  1. During adolescence, teens may begin to assert independence and remove themselves from normal family activities in favor of working, hanging out with friends, or participating in sporting activities. Which of the following will adolescents normally experience during this time?
a. Feelings of distrust and dislike for their parents
b. Feelings of self-anger and inadequacy
c. Feelings of love, loyalty and respect for parents
d. Feelings of contempt and disgust for peers

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following parenting types tends to provide adolescents who are more self-reliant?
a. authoritarian c. permissive
b. authoritative d. neglectful

 

 

 

 

  1. At what point are same gender friends viewed as providing more support than parents?
a. 9th grade c. 11th grade
b. 10th grade d. 12th grade

 

 

 

  1. Adolescence is a time of increased relationships with peers. How do they define relationship expectations during this time period?
a. Judgment, availability, and challenging thinking
b. Acceptance, mutual understanding, and intimate self-disclosure
c. Consistent morals, romance, and reliance
d. Loyalty, intimacy, and reliance

 

 

 

  1. How do friendship networks of girls compare to those of boys?
a. Boys have more exclusive networks. c. Boys have more intimate networks.
b. Girls have more intimate networks. d. Girls have larger networks.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by individuals who choose to share activities together rather than choose activities that others share?
a. clique c. sect
b. crowd d. social group

 

 

 

  1. Studies have found that peer pressure is weak during early adolescence, peaks during mid-adolescence and declines after about age 17. Why is peer pressure so significant during adolescence?
a. Following the crowd is necessary for maintaining friendships.
b. Peers provide like-mindedness when parents are not available.
c. Peers provide a standard by which adolescents measure their own behavior.
d. Adolescents share more morals with peers.

 

 

 

 

  1. In general, how long is the gap between initial attraction and disclosure of sexual orientation for same sex orientations?
a. 6 years c. 10 years
b. 8 years d. 12 years

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember

 

  1. According to Savin-Williams and Diamond, initial attraction to another person occurs around what age?
a. 9 c. 13
b. 11 d. 15

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following has been found to be the most prevalent reason for teen pregnancy?
a. They did not realize the risk they took.
b. They had a troubled home life and wanted a new family.
c. They wanted to keep their boyfriends.
d. They wanted to show their independence and defy their parents.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following reasons has been given by the CDC for the drop off in teen pregnancies?
a. An increase in following religious norms
b. An increase in effective education programs
c. A decrease in poor family environments
d. A decrease in female desire for children

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a crime more often committed by teenage girls?
a. fighting c. truancy
b. theft d. property destruction

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following groups has the highest rate of suicide and suicide attempts?
a. European American c. Hispanic American
b. African American d. Native American

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is most often used by females to attempt suicide?
a. Overdosing on drugs c. Cutting their wrists
b. Stabbing themselves d. Shooting themselves

 

 

 

  1. According to Arnett, which of the following stages do individuals fall into from ages 18 to 25?
a. adolescence c. emerging adulthood
b. late adolescence d. adulthood

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a current marker of adulthood?
a. marriage c. financial independence
b. children d. graduation from college

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following was the median age for marriage for females in 1960?
a. 20 c. 22
b. 21 d. 23

 

 

 

  1. What is the current median age for women to get married?
a. 25 c. 27
b. 26 d. 28

 

 

y

 

  1. According to Arnett, individuals in their twenties today view having children as ____.
a. an achievement to be sought c. a developmental necessity
b. a tax break d. a threat to current status

 

 

 

  1. What percentage of undergraduates are women?
a. 46% c. 66%
b. 56% d. 76%

 

 

 

  1. According to your text (Table 6.4), which of the following bachelor degrees was most often earned by females in 2005-2006?
a. Nursing c. Math
b. Environmental science d. Engineering

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following was the most likely doctoral degree earned by a women in 1991?
a. mental health therapist c. biologist
b. nuclear scientist d. architect

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following bachelor’s degrees saw a reduction in females from 1990 to 2006?
a. health professions c. physical sciences
b. biological sciences d. mathematics

 

 

 

  1. What is the reason that emerging adulthood has become a lifespan stage?
a. Less industrialized countries have pushed younger adolescents into later adult stages early.
b. More industrialized countries have pushed younger adolescents into later adult stages early.
c. Less industrialized countries have reduced the need for early transition to adulthood, creating a gap stage.
d. More industrialized countries have reduced the need for early transition to adulthood, creating a gap stage.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is part of the Age of Instability?
a. Experimenting with career possibilities
b. Moving from job to job
c. Making decisions independent of parents
d. Not completely independent, but not completely dependent on parents

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be characterized by the freedom to make their own decisions?
a. Age of instability c. Age of feeling in-between
b. Age of self-focus d. Age of possibilities

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be characterized by the state of being out of high school but not finished with formal higher education?
a. The age of identity explorations c. The age of feeling in-between
b. The age of instability d. The age of possibilities

 

 

 

 

  1. During which age group do individuals report the lowest ambivalence in feeling they have reached adulthood?
a. 12-17 c. 26-35
b. 18-25 d. 36-55

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following was used by Erikson to define the extended period between adolescence and adulthood?
a. identity diffusion c. moratorium
b. emerging adulthood d. early adulthood

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. What occurs to regulate the menstrual cycle in girls?

 

 

  1. What are the differences in boys and girls who experience early maturation?

 

 

  1. What three things account for nearly 80% of adolescent deaths?

 

 

  1. Provide three characteristics for anorexia nervosa.

 

 

  1. Name and describe Piaget’s fourth stage of cognitive development.

 

 

  1. According to Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral development, who is more sophisticated in their moral reasoning abilities and why?

 

 

  1. Name the six personality types described in Holland’s Vocational Personality Types.

 

 

  1. Mark is a 15-year-old high school student who stays out past curfew and drinks with his friends. He is picked up by police. What crime has Mark committed and how is it termed by the law?

 

 

  1. Criminologist Donna Bishop developed two hypotheses regarding the differences in European American and African American youth committing crimes. What are the theories and how do they explain the difference in arrest rates?

 

 

  1. In third grade, a student is given the problem 3 + x = 12. Why will the student have difficulty solving this problem?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 7 – Early Adulthood

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Early adults need at least 20 minutes of vigorous activity five or more days a week.

 

 

 

  1. Depressants speed the activity of the nervous system.

 

 

  1. Sexual activity with a partner usually peaks in the 30s.

 

 

  1. An effective way of managing stress is to take care of your health.

 

 

 

  1. Most adolescents have knowledge of HIV/AIDS and only one-third of them changes sexual practices as a result.

 

 

 

  1. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation, and a sign of infertility.

 

 

 

  1. Fluid intelligence peaks in early adulthood.

 

 

 

  1. The Association of American Colleges and Universities advises the importance of recognizing that your initial reaction to cultural differences may be offensive.

 

 

 

  1. One of the challenges of early adulthood is becoming established in the career world.

 

 

  1. The sex partners of nearly 82% of single European American men were European American women.

 

 

  1. Marriage is the most common lifestyle of young adults ages 25-34.

 

m

 

  1. The concept of “like marrying like” is termed homogamy.

 

 

  1. Many women do not bear children until they are in their 30s, with some delaying until their 40s.

 

 

  1. It is actually unlikely that having a child will save a marriage.

 

 

  1. Two of three single parents are mothers while one of three is a father.

 

 

  1. Between 40% and 50% of the marriages in the United States end in divorce.

 

 

  1. Nationwide support for gay marriage is on a downward slope.

 

 

  1. Two people in five want no legal recognition of gay relationships.

 

 

  1. Attraction-similarity hypothesis states that people tend to develop romantic relationships with people who are similar in attractiveness but different in other traits.

 

 

  1. It is a fact that couples can remain in love after the passion fades.

 

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. What is the most common way to transmit HIV?
a. sex between two males c. genetics
b. blood transfusion d. sex between male and female

 

 

 

 

  1. The first stage of adulthood, early adulthood, is usually considered to encompass what ages?
a. 18-30 c. 25-30
b. 20-40 d. 30-40

 

 

 

  1. At which age does hearing tend to decline in people?
a. late 30s c. late 20s
b. mid 40s d. mid 30s

 

 

 

  1. What is the leading cause of death among 15-24 year olds?
a. alcohol c. drug abuse
b. accidents d. homicide

 

 

 

  1. In early adulthood, changes due to aging will begin gradually affecting which of the following systems?
a. Cardiovascular, brain functioning, and vision
b. Respiratory, nervous, and muscular
c. Cardiovascular, immune, and respiratory
d. Vision, immune, and hearing

 

 

 

  1. What is the leading cause of death among 25-44 year olds?
a. cancer c. accident
b. suicide d. heart disease

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Americans have been ballooning in weight over the past half century or so. In the 1960s, 31.5% of adults aged 20-74 were overweight, and another 13.3% were obese, totaling 44.8%. As of the middle 2000s, the numbers had swelled to which of the following?
a. 23.1% overweight and 25.7% obese, adding up to 48.7%
b. 28.1% overweight and 32.2% obese, adding up to 60.3%
c. 32.1% overweight and 35.2% obese, adding up to 67.3%
d. 42.1% overweight and 45.2% obese, adding up to 87.3%

 

 

 

  1. How many people between the ages of 18 and 24 are obese, according to the CDC survey cited in your text (McCracken et al., 2007)?
a. 30% c. 57%
b. 40% d. 63%

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a disease that would not be helped by 30-60 minutes of physical activity a day?
a. Type II diabetes c. glandular disease
b. colon cancer d. heart disease

 

 

 

  1. Continuing substance use despite the problems it causes characterizes which of the following?
a. substance dependence c. tolerance
b. substance abuse d. abstinence syndrome

 

 

 

  1. Abstinence syndrome is evident when which of the following conditions occurs?
a. Substance use is long-term. c. Substance use is increased.
b. Substance use is decreased. d. Substance use is withheld.

 

 

 

  1. Cocaine accelerates the heart rate, spikes blood pressure, constricts arteries of the heart, and thickens the blood. Which of the following can occur as a result?
a. Cardiovascular and respiratory collapse
b. Blood clots and high blood pressure
c. Heart failure and lung collapse
d. Stroke and heart failure

 

 

 

  1. More than one million people in which age group are accidentally injured each year while under the influence?
a. 16-24 c. 20-26
b. 18-25 d. 21-34

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how many Americans die from smoking per year?
a. 300,000 c. 575,000
b. 450,000 d. 650,000

 

 

 

  1. According to a poll taken by the American Psychological Association (2007), how many Americans are living with “extreme stress”?
a. one third c. two thirds
b. one fourth d. three fourths

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the most effective way to manage stress?
a. Drink moderate amounts of alcohol to relax.
b. Obtain social support.
c. Take anxiety-reducing medication.
d. Temporarily ignore the problems.

 

 

 

  1. One study shows that sexual activity peaks in the 20s. What are two main reasons?
a. opportunity and independence c. independence and rebellion
b. maturity and excess d. youth and opportunity

 

 

 

  1. In which of the following populations is a high number of sex partners more common?
a. Those with higher socioeconomic status
b. Those with a higher education level
c. Those with higher attractiveness
d. Those with higher social skills

 

 

 

  1. Education as a liberalizing influence and exposure to more partners are two reasons for a higher rate of sex partners in which of the following populations?
a. People with powerful careers c. People with higher education
b. People in government d. People in service industries

 

 

lt

 

  1. Studies looking at the development of sexual orientation look at both nature and nurture to explain sexual orientation. When do most people become aware of their own sexuality?
a. Before being involved with either sex
b. During adolescent exploration
c. After being sexually involved with either sex
d. Very early in life

 

 

 

 

  1. About how many new chlamydia infections occur each year (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2006)?
a. 1.4 million c. 2.4 million
b. 1.8 million d. 2.8 million

 

 

 

  1. How is genital herpes transmitted?
a. Vaginal, oral, or anal sex
b. Contact with an infected surface
c. Shaking the hand of someone who is infected
d. Passage through the birth canal of an infected mother

 

 

 

 

  1. How is syphilis treated?
a. natural healing over time c. antiviral drugs
b. antibiotics d. piperonal butoxide

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is one of the most common menstrual problems?
a. amenorrhea c. premenstrual syndrome
b. prostaglandins d. dysmenorrhea

 

 

 

  1. While the fields of learning and social psychology look at nature vs. nurture for the development of sexual orientation, evolutionary psychologists believe which of the following?
a. Strong same-sex relationships increase group survival by binding a group together emotionally.
b. Having more children decreases the chance of passing on the X chromosome believed to influence sexual orientation in males.
c. Strong same sex relationship increases group survival by binding a group together socially due to common interests.
d. Having fewer children increases the fertility in women who carry the X chromosome gene.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the most common STI diagnosed in the United States?
a. chlamydia c. pubic lice
b. human papilloma virus d. syphilis

 

 

 

  1. Educational programs about STIs exist in public places and in high school systems, and parents are encouraged to talk to adolescents about STIs. With all of these shared knowledge, how many modify their sexual practices?
a. 8% c. 50%
b. 25% d. 72%

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is one of the most common symptoms of premenstrual syndrome?
a. Muscular tension c. Fluid retention
b. Headaches d. Amenorrhea

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the term for painful menstruation?
a. Dysmenorrhea c. Premenstrual syndrome
b. Amenorrhea d. Prostaglandis

 

 

 

  1. The National Crime Victimization Survey estimates that 191,000 women were sexually assaulted in 2004. This included 72,000 rapes and another 40,000 attempted rapes. How many males are estimated to be victims of rape?
a. 1% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 18%

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following may lead men to reject “feminine” traits such as tenderness and empathy that might restrain aggression?
a. Stereotyping c. Gender roles
b. Gender typing d. Social bias

 

 

exual Harassment, Online

OBJ:   LO11: Discuss sexual coercion.     MSC:  TYPE: Medium

 

  1. Sexual harassment victimizes which of the following groups at what rates?
a. 10-15% of female college students c. 40-60% of working women
b. 30-50% of working men d. 5-8% of male college students

 

 

 

 

  1. In the United States, what is the proportion of women who are raped in their lifetime?
a. 1 in 3 c. 1 in 5
b. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 6

 

 

 

 

  1. Late adolescents typically are likely to have the broadest general knowledge of which subject?
a. science c. psychology
b. history d. vocabulary

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is defined as the ability to process information, such as solving math problems?
a. epistemic cognition c. crystallized intelligence
b. fluid intelligence d. relativistic thinking

 

 

 

 

  1. Who created the theory of epistemic cognition?
a. Warner Schaie c. Gisela Labouvie-Vief
b. William Perry d. Albert Bandura

 

 

 

  1. Adolescence carries with it a certain egocentrism that can most impair which of the following areas?
a. judgment and problem solving
b. moral development
c. verbal capacities
d. quantitative capacities

 

 

 

  1. Cognitive development in college life doesn’t just rest on exposure to “great books”; it is also fostered by which of the following?
a. Students and professors with different views
b. Philosophical thought of the modern era
c. Extended time with similar age groups
d. Taking classes within a specialized area

 

 

 

  1. According to the U.S. Department of Justice (2006), about 5 rapes in 6 are committed by acquaintances of the victim, including classmates, coworkers, dates, and family friends. Acquaintance rapes are less likely than stranger rapes to be reported to police. What is the most common reason for this?
a. Rape survivors may not perceive sexual assaults by acquaintances as rapes.
b. Rape survivors believe that they will be blamed for the assault.
c. Being raped by an acquaintance can be embarrassing to admit.
d. The fear that the rape survivor will be viewed only as a “victim” and not as a whole person.

 

 

 

 

  1. What decision-making strategy is characterized by the willingness to accept reality and compromise?
a. pragmatic thought c. relativistic thinking
b. dualistic thinking d. cognitive-affective complexity

 

 

 

  1. Students often enter college or adult life assuming that there are right and wrong answers for everything, and that the world can be divided easily into black versus white, good versus bad, and us versus them. What is this type of thinking called?
a. crystallized intelligence c. dualistic thinking
b. epistemic cognition d. relativistic thinking

 

 

 

 

  1. Thoughts such as, “She may not be beautiful, but she is very nice and smart,” are examples of which of the following?
a. pragmatic thought c. relativistic thinking
b. cognitive-affective complexity d. dualistic thinking

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be the definition of relativistic thinking?
a. Belief that the world can be divided into categories
b. The narrowing of possibilities into choices
c. Realization that judgments are made from a belief system
d. Thought process directed at how we arrive at beliefs, facts, and ideas

 

 

 

 

  1. College students are encouraged to do which of the following to help develop critical thinking skills?
a. Oversimplify the material so it is understandable.
b. Simplify the material so it is easier to process.
c. Draw conclusions from available evidence.
d. Be open to opposing viewpoints to learn from others.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is characterized by earning a living, receiving fringe benefits, and ensuring future security?
a. intrinsic motives c. realistic choice stage
b. extrinsic motives d. fantasy stage

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic reasoning?
a. self-efficacy c. self-esteem
b. self-identity d. self-assurance

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the time when most individuals become established in careers?
a. adolescence c. young adulthood
b. early adulthood d. adulthood

 

 

 

  1. The recognition and respect for a job well done that contributes to self-esteem is called ____.
a. self-fulfillment c. self-actualization
b. self-identity d. self-worth

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true about choices in the realistic stage?
a. Choices focus on job opportunities such as acting, medicine, sports, and law enforcement.
b. Choices present a sense of continuing development of the career and a feeling of forward motion.
c. Choices become narrowed by weighing job requirements and rewards against interests, abilities and values.
d. Choices involve severing bonds with the workplace.

 

 

 

  1. At what age do children begin to base their choices on interests, abilities, and limitations, as well as glamour?
a. 10 c. 12
b. 11 d. 13

 

 

 

  1. The traditional view of development in early adulthood was laid down by which of the following psychologists?
a. Erikson c. Havighurst
b. Jung d. Freud

 

 

 

  1. According to Steele (2005), highly traditional or insecure parents may find a young adult leaving for college so stressful that it damages the parent-child relationship. Why is this particularly true when female young adults are leaving?
a. Parents tend to feel jealousy over the achievement.
b. Females are more vulnerable “out there” in the world.
c. Traditional families still feel that women do not need an education.
d. Mothers become jealous of the opportunities they were given.

 

 

m

 

  1. Which of the following occurs during the separation and individuation process?
a. Becoming an individual by means of integrating one’s own values and beliefs with those of one’s parents and one’s society
b. Becoming an individual through completely adopting the values and beliefs of one’s parents and one’s society
c. Becoming an individual by means of dismissing the values and beliefs of one’s parents and society while creating individual values and beliefs
d. Becoming an individual by means of distancing one’s own values and beliefs from those of parents and one’s society

 

 

 

  1. What is the central conflict of life crisis of early adulthood, in which a person develops an intimate relationship with a significant other or risks heading down a path toward social isolation?
a. Individualism vs. collectivism c. Dream vs reality
b. Life structure vs. life choices d. Intimacy vs. isolation

 

 

 

 

  1. Who published a book called “Season’s of a Man’s Life”?
a. Erikson c. Levinson
b. Havighurst d. Niesta

 

 

 

  1. Erikson was criticized for suggesting that young adults who choose to remain celibate or single ____.
a. have failed a stage of development
b. are not developing normally
c. have not made it out of the adolescence state of development
d. have an overdeveloped sense of self

 

 

 

 

  1. Levinson defined life structure as which of the following?
a. The stages of development
b. The building of characteristics and traits over time
c. The plan one has developed for their life
d. The underlying pattern of a person’s life at any given moment

 

 

 

 

 

  1. John has a need to become an architect and build the design for the biggest building in the world. In his mind, he can see himself on the covers of Architectural Digest, the front page of the paper, and see his name in architectural textbooks from now on. Levinson would define this need as which of the following?
a. The dream c. Seasons of life
b. Life structure d. Fantasy stage

 

 

 

 

  1. Due to pressures from family of origin and societal constraints, women can experience delays in leaving the family home and feel more pressure to do which of the following?
a. Develop a step-by-step plan for her life before moving out.
b. Achieve a career with financial stability before moving out.
c. Remain in the family home until she marries.
d. Find roommates to live with to limit vulnerability.

 

 

 

  1. Feelings of attraction have been defined as which of the following?
a. Chemical responses that trigger a desire for another
b. Psychological forces that draw people together
c. An evolutionary need to find a partner for safety
d. A requirement for romantic interest in another person

 

 

 

  1. A time period for adults is characterized by assessment: “Where is my life going?” and “Why am I doing this?”. During which state is this reassessment brought up?
a. Early 20s c. Late 30s
b. Early 30s d. Early 40s

 

 

 

  1. The transition from parental home to either the workplace or college can play a role in the separation and individuation process. Financial independence can lessen feelings of connectedness with parents, whereas college or university can maintain these feelings. Why is this?
a. Self-worth is being able to depend on one’s self without the need for parental assistance.
b. The separation and individuation process is defined as being able to disconnect from parents.
c. Individuals can feel that they have been deserted by parents once they are out of the home and expected to support themselves financially.
d. Feelings of connectedness are related to the amount of financial and emotional support received from parents.

 

 

 

  1. People rate the attractiveness of faces higher when the faces ____ (O’Doherty et al., 2003).
a. have enigmatic expressions c. are smiling
b. are different from their own d. have dimples

 

 

 

 

  1. Feelings about weight have been linked to which of the following?
a. society c. culture
b. family d. media

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how many women and men choose partners within five years of their age?
a. 73% c. 92%
b. 83% d. 95%

 

 

 

  1. A review of 5,810 Yahoo dating profiles showed that European American males were more likely than African American and Latino American males to want to date slender and buffed women. African American and Latino American men were significantly more likely to be interested in women with large or thick bodies. What does this indicate?
a. Attraction is defined by the individual preferences.
b. Preferences in body weight and shape may be culturally determined.
c. Beauty is defined based on how the media portrays women.
d. Online dating is becoming more mainstream.

 

 

 

 

  1. Kniffin and Wilson reported that the perception of attractiveness can be enhanced by which of the following?
a. loneliness c. desire
b. respect d. ambition

 

 

 

  1. How do feelings of loneliness change between childhood and adolescence?
a. They decrease. c. They stay the same.
b. They increase. d. They change focus.

 

 

 

 

  1. Various studies have found that the traits of being outgoing and self-expressive were ____.
a. preferred in men and disliked in women
b. preferred in women and disliked in men
c. preferred in both men and women
d. preferred in neither men nor women

 

 

 

  1. Evolutionary psychologists argue that attraction can be inherited based on specific characteristics. For instance, both men and women seek physical features like cleanliness, good complexion, clear eyes, good teeth, good hair, etc. These are most likely representative of good health and tied to reproductive potential. Which of the following is associated with a man’s reproductive value?
a. intelligence and financial security c. economic status and reliability
b. high level of caring and intelligence d. social acceptability and sensitivity

 

 

 

  1. Which hypothesis holds that people tend to develop romantic relationships with people who are similar to themselves in attractiveness and other traits?
a. life structure c. romantic love
b. reciprocity d. attraction similarity

 

 

 

 

  1. When we feel admired and complimented, we tend to return these feelings and behaviors. What is this called?
a. passion c. reciprocity
b. romantic love d. intimacy

 

 

 

  1. Reciprocity is ____.
a. the primary cause of problems in a relationship
b. an indicator of passion
c. part of Sternberg’s intimacy model
d. a potent determinant of attraction

 

 

 

 

  1. Passion is defined as which of the following?
a. The experience of warmth toward another person that arises from feelings of closeness and connectedness
b. A commitment to maintain a relationship through good times and bad
c. An intense romantic or sexual desire, accompanied by physiological arousal
d. A passionate, obsessive love at first sight without intimacy or commitment

 

 

 

  1. A love relationship that has both passion and commitment but lacks intimacy is referred to by Sternberg as which of the following?
a. fatuous love c. romantic love
b. consummate love d. empty love

 

 

 

  1. Why is it believed that more and more young people are not marrying as early as was found in the past?
a. educational pursuits c. increased access to larger populations
b. reduction in family farms d. longer life expectancy

 

 

 

  1. A loss of affectionate feelings, feelings of insecurity and rejection, anxiety, loss of self-esteem, and feelings of mistrust can all result from which of the following?
a. love c. jealousy
b. loneliness d. infatuation

 

 

 

  1. In a 1970 review of the census, 55% of men between the ages of 20-24 were single. In a subsequent review in 2006 how many in the same age range were unmarried?
a. 36% c. 73%
b. 55% d. 84%

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following defines serial monogamy?
a. Abstention from sexual activity
b. A series of exclusive sexual relationships
c. Having a sexual relationship with only one person for life
d. Having sexual relationships with multiple partners simultaneously

 

 

 

 

  1. The number of households consisting of one unmarried man and one unmarried female has grown by how much since 1960?
a. 10 times c. 20 times
b. 15 times d. 25 times

 

 

 

  1. Approximately 40% of couples who cohabited prior to marriage later divorce. What is the hypothesis for why this occurs?
a. The couples are simply getting married because they lived together and feel it is the next step.
b. The couples have a lower level of religiosity and less commitment to the values and interests associated with marriage
c. The couples tend to be too young to fully comprehend the commitment involved in marriage.
d. After living together, the couples tend to desire their independence again.

 

 

 

  1. Marriage is still the most common lifestyle among adults of which age range?
a. 23-34 c. 35-44
b. 25-36 d. 40-50

 

 

 

  1. Polyandry is characterized by which of the following?
a. One man marrying more than one woman
b. Like individuals marrying like individuals
c. Parenting with multiple partners
d. One woman marrying multiple men

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the two main types of marriage?
a. traditional and conventional c. monogamy and polygamy
b. polygyny and polyandry d. committed and uncommitted

 

 

 

  1. The practice of marrying people who are similar to oneself is known as which of the following?
a. polyandry c. homogamy
b. monogamy d. polygyny

 

 

 

  1. Homogamy is defined as which of the following?
a. A committed homosexual relationship
b. Marrying someone from a like background
c. Relations with multiple partners
d. Committing to only one partner

 

 

 

  1. How is satisfaction with one’s career related to marital satisfaction?
a. They are independent of each other. c. There is a positive correlation.
b. They depend on each other. d. There is a negative correlation.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following most demonstrates the stability of homosexual couples?
a. They have had to struggle for acceptance and are more committed to their relationships.
b. They are involved in a more supportive community.
c. They are more satisfied in their lives prior to committing to the relationship.
d. They tend to share household responsibilities without gender stereotyping.

 

 

 

 

  1. Research shows that homosexual couples experience ____.
a. the greatest overall satisfaction in their relationships
b. more satisfaction when heterosexual social supports are not present
c. less satisfaction when heterosexual social supports are present
d. more satisfaction when social supports are present

 

 

 

 

  1. Most people in developed countries decide to have children primarily for what purpose?
a. As a means of personal happiness c. As a tax deduction
b. A means of improving a bad marriage d. For religious reasons

 

 

 

  1. Parents who agree on parenting and division of duties experience which of the following?
a. More positive adjustment c. More parental stress
b. More negative adjustment d. More well adjusted children

 

 

 

  1. Caring for children has been connected with decreased well-being for dual-earner women (as opposed to those in single-earner households) and ____
a. decreased well-being in men
b. increased well-being in men
c. higher job turnover among men
d. lower job satisfaction among both men and women

 

 

 

  1. What is the rate of single mothers who receive public assistance?
a. 1 in 5 c. 3 in 5
b. 2 in 5 d. 4 in 5

 

 

 

  1. Children in single parent families tend to experience which of the following?
a. Slower development overall
b. Earlier responsibilities
c. More difficult adjustments
d. Easier adjustments

 

 

 

 

  1. The concept of homogamy in marriage has been shown to result in which of the following?
a. Sharing common values as a society
b. Less stable relationships
c. Later life marriage
d. More stable relationships

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following normally occurs after divorce?
a. Most women remarry. c. Most men and women remarry.
b. Most men choose not to remarry. d. Most women choose not to remarry.

 

 

 

  1. Divorced and separated people have the highest rates of which of the following?
a. depression c. suicide
b. financial problems d. anxiety

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following factors have contributed to the increased divorce rates in the United States (i.e., between 40% and 50% according to the U.S. Bureau of Census in 2011)?
a. Changes in the laws and increased financial security of women
b. Increased education and marrying too young
c. Lack of religiosity and cohabitation
d. Lack of financial support from a spouse and communication

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following has been proposed as a reason for problems with children after divorce, other than the divorce itself?
a. Decline in finances
b. Confusion going from one house to another
c. Stigma at school
d. Decline in parenting skills

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following results in the most harmful consequences for a child?
a. Divorce after a marriage with conflict
b. Lower financial status during a separation
c. Moving to a new home after a divorce
d. Remaining in a marriage with conflict

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. How does adaptive thermogenesis affect weight loss in individuals?

 

 

  1. Evaluate the differences between substance abuse and substance dependence.

 

 

  1. According to the American Psychological Association, one-third of Americans report they live under “extreme stress.” Stress can have significant negative impacts on people’s psychological and physical health and on their social, academic, and vocational lives. List and describe three ways to overcome stress.

 

 

  1. Although knowledge about HIV/AIDS is widespread among U.S. adolescents, only about half modify their sexual practices as a result. List three ways HIV/AIDS can be transmitted.

 

 

  1. Describe the differences between crystallized and fluid intelligence.

 

 

 

  1. Different careers hold different challenges, but a number of challenges are common enough. Name four of the common challenges.

 

 

  1. Name and describe the three building blocks of Sternberg’s Triangular Theory of Love.

 

 

  1. List the factors normally associated with the value of men as reproducers. List the factors normally associated with the value of women as reproducers.

 

 

  1. List two of the reasons for choosing cohabitation over marriage.

 

 

  1. List three of the different types of marriage.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 8: Middle Adulthood

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. During middle adulthood, the risk of adult-onset diabetes increases as body tissues lose their sensitivity to insulin.

 

 

  1. The lifetime risk of developing breast cancer for women is 1 in 3.

 

 

  1. Menopause is the cessation of menstruation that normally occurs between the ages of 46 and 50 and lasts for about 2 years.

 

 

  1. Researchers for the National Health and Social Life Survey found that sexual dysfunctions are rather uncommon during middle adulthood.

 

 

  1. IQ scores in the United States have risen over the past couple of generations.

 

 

  1. Aspects of creativity that are more likely to be found among young adults include creativity in music, mathematics, and physics.

 

 

 

  1. Men make up about 63% of postsecondary students aged 35 and above in the United States.

 

 

  1. Striving for top performance and success at work, is one of Robert Havighurst’s Developmental Tasks of Middle Adulthood.

 

 

  1. Studies show that the majority of women experience a painful empty-nest syndrome when their youngest child leaves home.

 

 

 

  1. Middle-aged adults who perceive negative life events as specific rather than global tend to be less depressed about those events.

 

 

  1. According to research findings, women in their 40s and 60s show nearly equal levels of generativity.

 

 

 

  1. Once their children become emerging or young adults, most parents in the United States agonize over “launching” their children into the world to live on their own.

 

 

  1. Studies show that in two-parent households, a grandparent residing with the family typically becomes a source of discord between the parents.

 

 

  1. In East Asian nations, older parents tend to live with their children.

 

 

  1. Most adult sibling relationships are close regardless of the nature of the relationship in childhood.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In chronological terms, developmentalists consider middle adulthood to span the years from ____.
a. 30 to 55 c. 40 to 65
b. 35 to 60 d. 45 to 70

 

 

 

  1. Sheila once had thick red hair. Now at the age of 60, most of Sheila’s hair is gray. What caused this change in Sheila’s hair color?
a. loss of melanin c. loss of papillae
b. loss of keratin d. loss of dermis

 

 

 

 

  1. Much of the wrinkling of the skin associated with aging is caused by ____.
a. the body producing fewer keratinocytes c. exposure to environmental chemicals
b. the body producing fewer melanocytes d. exposure to ultraviolet rays

 

 

 

 

  1. After having difficulty focusing on fine print for several years, 43-year-old Regina visits an ophthalmologist who tells her that she is experiencing age-related loss of elasticity of the lens. To what condition is Regina’s ophthalmologist referring?
a. cataracts c. astigmatism
b. presbyopia d. glaucoma

 

 

 

  1. Forty-eight-year old Marcy rides her bicycle through the park with her husband. While approaching a pot hole, she does not turn in time to miss it. She remarks to her husband, “I just don’t seem to react as quickly as I used to.” Why have Marcy’s reaction times slowed over the years?
a. loss of neurons c. loss of myelination
b. loss of muscle tone d. loss of bone density

 

 

 

 

  1. During middle adulthood, how can one compensate for the physical changes associated with aging?
a. Exercise can compensate for muscle loss by causing growth of new muscle cells.
b. Regular exercise can offset much of the age-related loss in lung capacity.
c. Vigorous exercise can help regain the prowess of a young adult athlete.
d. Eliminating simple carbohydrates can block age-related loss of lean-body mass.

 

 

 

  1. Why does the metabolic rate decline as we age?
a. Metabolic enzymes begin to degrade.
b. More calories must be kept on reserve to support aging body tissues.
c. Fat burns fewer calories than muscle.
d. Activity levels significantly decline.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Bone, which consists largely of calcium, begins to lose density and strength at around the age of ____.
a. 30 c. 50
b. 40 d. 60

 

 

 

  1. What is a critique of the statement, “People in the United States profit from having the best health care in the world?”
a. Our health care system places little value on holistic and herbal remedies.
b. Some socioeconomic groups and racial and ethnic minority groups lack access to health care.
c. Preventative medicine is encouraged by only a minority of health care practitioners.
d. Diet and exercise are not part of our routine health care maintenance plans.

 

 

 

  1. What are the top two leading causes of death in middle adulthood?
a. diabetes and accidents c. cancer and accidents
b. diabetes and heart disease d. cancer and heart disease

 

 

 

  1. At a local community center, urologist Dr. Cole raises awareness about the risks for prostate cancer for certain racial and ethnic groups. For which group of people does Dr. Cole advise prostate cancer screenings beginning at the age of 45?
a. African American c. Caucasian
b. Hispanic d. Asian

 

 

 

  1. The development of malignant or cancerous cells in parts of the body other than where they originated from is referred to as ____.
a. migration c. proliferation
b. mutation d. metastasis

 

 

 

  1. What cellular event is a trigger for cancer?
a. peroxisomal degradation c. mitochondrial failure
b. DNA mutation d. ribosomal dysfunction

 

 

 

 

  1. Which is an example of a carcinogen?
a. certain viruses c. hormonal factors
b. hereditary factors d. immune dysfunction

 

 

  1. While researching cancer mortality rates for a school project, Diana notices that racial and ethnic minority groups have higher cancer mortality rates. What is the likely cause for these differences?
a. genetic factors c. lack of early detection and treatment
b. lack of education d. inadequate access to healthy foods

 

 

  1. In the United States, what is the lifetime risk of developing cancer for males?
a. 1 in 2 c. 1 in 4
b. 1 in 3 d. 1 in 5

 

 

 

  1. While writing a report on the causes of cancer, Tamika is surprised to find out that 30% of all cancers in Western cultures are due to ____.
a. smoking c. heredity
b. diet d. environmental toxins

 

 

 

  1. Arteriosclerosis is best defined as the ____.
a. collapse of the arteries c. the breakage of the arteries
b. loss of the arteries d. the hardening of the arteries

 

 

 

  1. Fifty-eight-year old Jerry learns that he has atherosclerosis; his cardiologist explains to him that ____.
a. his heart tissue is deteriorating
b. there is a buildup of plaque in his arteries
c. his heart beat is weak and irregular
d. blood is leaking out of his arteries

 

 

 

 

  1. A white blood cell is referred to as a(n) ____.
a. erythrocyte c. platelet
b. leukocyte d. melanocyte

 

 

 

  1. Pedro is infected with the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae. Pedro’s white blood cells generate what substance in response to the Streptococcus pneumoniae to help Pedro’s body fight off the infection?
a. antibodies c. antidotes
b. antigens d. antibactercides

 

 

 

  1. Dexter falls and bumps his knee while out for his morning jog. By the end of the day, the site of the injury shows the classical signs of inflammation: redness, swelling and warmth. What physiological response caused the inflammation?
a. Lymph fluid is rerouted to the site of injury and local lymph nodes swell with excess fluids.
b. Water displacement occurs as the white blood cells draw water from the blood towards the site of injury.
c. The site of injury experiences increased blood flow, cell numbers, and endogenous chemical release.
d. Blood clotting factors and cellular enzymes involved in tissue repair migrate to the site of injury.

 

 

 

  1. How can stress increase the risk of heart attack in vulnerable individuals?
a. Stress hormones may inhibit the break down of fatty deposits.
b. Stress hormones can constrict blood vessels that lead to the heart.
c. Stress hormones cause the heart to beat at an accelerated rate.
d. Stress hormones promote the release of endogenous toxic chemicals.

 

 

 

  1. Compared with early adulthood, sexual activity in middle adulthood tends to ____.
a. stay the same c. decrease
b. increase d. peak then decline

 

 

 

  1. Why is it thought that a significant percentage of 50- to 59-year-old women become sexually inactive?
a. They have a loss of interest in sex
b. They become widowed or divorced
c. They are dissatisfied with their current partner
d. Physical changes cause pain during sex.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The most common sexual problem among men during the latter part of middle adulthood is ____.
a. erectile dysfunction c. lack of sexual desire
b. premature ejaculation d. pain during sex

 

 

 

  1. The gradual decline in the reproductive capacity of the ovaries due to a decline in production of estrogen is referred to as ____.
a. menopause c. periclimacteric
b. perimenopause d. climacteric

 

 

 

  1. Fifty-year-old Mimi has been experiencing irregular periods for the last six months. This may indicate that Mimi is experiencing ____.
a. menopause c. amenorrhea
b. perimenopause d. periamenorrhea

 

 

 

  1. A sign of estrogen deficiency in middle adulthood women is ____.
a. blurred vision c. diarrhea
b. constipation d. heart palpitations

 

 

 

  1. Jessica is experiencing menopause. She discusses hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with her gynecologist to help mitigate some of the symptoms of menopause. Jessica’s gynecologist informs her that HRT____.
a. has no serious side effects c. decreases the risk of colon cancer
b. increases the risk of osteoporosis d. decreases the risk of strokes

 

 

 

  1. What contributes to erectile disorder in men and inadequate lubrication in women?
a. fatigue c. hypertension
b. decreased progesterone d. high cholesterol

 

 

 

  1. In middle-aged and older women, what physiological change contributes to pain during sex?
a. Uterine prolapse c. Thinning of the vaginal wall
b. Stiffening of the cervix d. Tilting of the uterus

 

 

 

 

  1. What may help middle adult and older men ward off erectile dysfunction?
a. Eliminating red meat c. Taking herbal supplements
b. Regular exercise d. Avoiding caffeine

 

 

 

  1. In the context of cognitive development, the fact that some aspects of intellectual functioning may improve while others remain stable or decline is referred to as ____.
a. reciprocity c. plasticity
b. multidirectionality d. homeostasis

 

 

 

  1. The fact that intellectual abilities are not absolutely fixed but can be modified is referred to as ____.
a. reciprocity c. plasticity
b. multidirectionality d. homeostasis

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Why is it believed that IQ scores in the United States have risen over the past couple of generations?
a. Better health care c. Better education
b. Less to worry about d. Small genetic changes

 

 

  1. A cluster of knowledge and skills that depends on accumulated information and experience, awareness of social conventions, and good judgment, is referred to as ____.
a. crystallized intelligence c. fluid intelligence
b. emergent intelligence d. assurgent intelligence

 

 

 

  1. A person’s skills at processing information is referred to as ____.
a. crystallized intelligence c. fluid intelligence
b. emergent intelligence d. assurgent intelligence

 

 

 

  1. Forty-seven-year old Edgar decides he wants to learn German for his upcoming trip to Germany. He spends each morning reviewing a vocabulary list of commonly used German words. What type of intelligence is Edgar using?
a. crystallized intelligence c. fluid intelligence
b. emergent intelligence d. assurgent intelligence

 

 

 

 

  1. Sixty-two year old Alena visits her seven year old grandson Miles. Miles asks his grandmother to play his new puzzle-theme video game. Alena attempts to process the incoming puzzle pieces and place them in the correct slots, demonstrating the use of ____.
a. crystallized intelligence c. fluid intelligence
b. emergent intelligence d. assurgent intelligence

 

 

 

 

  1. How are crystallized and fluid intelligence affected by aging?
a. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence decline during aging.
b. Both crystallized and fluid intelligence increase during aging.
c. Crystallized intelligence declines; fluid intelligence increases.
d. Crystallized intelligence increases; fluid intelligence declines.

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the work of Schaie and colleagues, which scenario is most likely to contribute to a slower cognitive decline in advanced late adulthood?
a. Betty reflects on her former life as a professional dancer and wishes that she put off having kids to pursue her career further.
b. Bill is enjoying his favorite past-time of 20 years, watching professional sports on TV.
c. Although Regis was raised as a conservative, he is glad to have attended the wedding of his gay grandson to welcome his new husband into their family.
d. Joseph put most of his earnings into a savings account so he will have a sizable nest egg to leave to his grandchildren.

 

 

 

  1. According to a longitudinal study performed by Schaie et al., considering all things are equal, which person is likely to score the highest in perceptual speed (assuming good health for all): Caitlyn 25 years old; Melissa 39 years old; Kathy 53 years old; Eleanor 67 years old?
a. Caitlyn c. Kathy
b. Melissa d. Eleanor

 

 

 

  1. According to a longitudinal study performed by Schaie et al., which person is likely to score the lowest in verbal ability (assuming good health for all): Caitlyn 25 years old; Melissa 39 years old; Kathy 53 years old; and Eleanor 67 years old?
a. Caitlyn c. Kathy
b. Melissa d. Eleanor

 

 

 

 

  1. According to a longitudinal study performed by Schaie et al., considering all things equal, which person is likely to score the highest in inductive reasoning: Caitlyn 25 years old; Melissa 39 years old; Kathy 53 years old; and Eleanor 67 years old?
a. Caitlyn c. Kathy
b. Melissa d. Eleanor

 

 

 

 

  1. Which type of cognitive function appears to be most negatively affected in middle adulthood?
a. long-term memory c. general knowledge
b. short-term memory d. procedural memory

 

 

 

 

  1. Pauline runs an advertising firm and is looking to hire a manager for the sales staff. According to the text, what could you tell Pauline to convince her to hire someone that is middle-aged rather than a young adult?
a. They are likely to experience more job satisfaction.
b. They are likely to be less competitive with others.
c. They are likely to be bring a more energetic attitude to the workforce.
d. They are likely to be calmer in stressful situations.

 

 

 

  1. Aspects of creativity are more likely to be found among young adults in which field?
a. art c. biology
b. writing d. physics

 

 

 

 

  1. Forty-one-year old Dave is contemplating returning to college but is nervous to do so. What can you tell Dave to encourage him to return to college?
a. He will have an easier time committing new material to memory.
b. The professors will likely treat Dave more as a colleague than a student.
c. Middle-aged students tend to be more motivated.
d. Younger students will embrace him into their inner circle.

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, which middle-aged woman is the most likely to return to school?
a. Clarice works part-time as a freelance writer and has no children.
b. Tiffany works full-time as an administrative assistant and has two young children.
c. Shelby volunteers part-time at a local homeless shelter and has one teenage son.
d. Mavis is a stay-at-home mom to a toddler and two young children.

 

 

 

  1. Today, approximately what percent of postsecondary students are considered returning students?
a. 0.7% c. 17%
b. 1.7% d. 27%

 

 

 

  1. What is a critique of Havighurst’s Developmental Tasks of Middle Adulthood?
a. His vision is one-dimensional. c. His vision is overly optimistic.
b. His vision lacks focus. d. His vision ignores physical challenges.

 

 

 

 

  1. From the list below, which is from Robert Havighurst’s Developmental Tasks of Middle Adulthood?
a. Finding inner peace and balance
b. Developing a range of enjoyable leisure activities
c. Preparing for financial security
d. Reflecting on past accomplishments

 

 

 

  1. The major psychological challenge of the middle years, according to Erikson, is ____.
a. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus stagnation
b. intimacy versus isolation d. ego integrity versus despair

 

 

 

  1. According to Erikson, what is meant by the term generativity?
a. Attaining financial successful c. Reaching a state of self-actualization
b. Bearing and rearing children d. Coming to terms with one’s mortality

 

 

 

 

  1. According to Erikson, which circumstance embodies the concept of stagnation?
a. Hector worries constantly about his health.
b. Chloe is in the midst of a divorce.
c. Zack is frustrated with his current work situation.
d. Rachel decides not to get pregnant out of fear of gaining weight.

 

 

 

  1. A psychological shift into middle adulthood that is theorized to occur between the ages of 40 and 45 as people begin to believe they have more to look back upon than forward to is referred to as a midlife ____.
a. crisis c. conversion
b. dilemma d. transition

 

 

 

  1. A time of dramatic self-doubt and anxiety during which people sense the passing of their youth and become concerned with their own aging and mortality is referred to as a midlife ____.
a. crisis c. conversion
b. dilemma d. transition

 

 

 

  1. According to Sheehy, why do women seem to enter midlife at the age of 35, five years earlier than men?
a. By the age of 35, women typically have more gray hair and wrinkles than men.
b. Women begin to feel that they are no longer sexually attractive around the age of 35.
c. Pregnant women 35 years and older are advised to undergo amniocentesis.
d. Divorce rates for women skyrocket  after the age of 35.

 

 

 

 

  1. On the eve of her 40th birthday, Glenda feels depressed about entering the next phase of her life, middle adulthood. As her friend, what can you tell Glenda about middle adulthood to cheer her up?
a. The risk of cancer slightly decreases until late adulthood.
b. Middle-aged adults are more apt to survive a company downsize.
c. Middle adulthood typically provides more opportunities to focus on one self.
d. Many middle-aged adults earn more money than their younger counterparts.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What approach focuses on the challenges and changes of life that people encounter during middle age?
a. life-events approach c. trials and tribulations approach
b. experienced milestones approach d. hurdles approach

 

 

 

  1. Maggie is the mother of three girls; the eldest two are away at college and the youngest is a senior in high school. Maggie is worried that she will experience loneliness or a loss of purpose when her youngest daughter goes off to college as well. What term is used to describe Maggie’s fears?
a. broken-heart syndrome c. empty-nest syndrome
b. momma-bear syndrome d. lonesome-dove syndrome

 

 

 

  1. Ryan is a 33-year-old record store manager who continues to live with his parents. Although his parents have asked him if he plans to find an apartment, he has no plans to leave and is very comfortable living with them. Ryan is displaying classical signs of ____ syndrome.
a. failure to thrive c. revolving-door
b. failure to launch d. open-arms

 

 

 

 

  1. What mitigates the effects of stress and fosters feelings of well-being among midlife adults?
a. Willingness to help others c. High level of creativity
b. Focusing on the self d. Sense of control

 

 

 

 

  1. According to researchers studying the “big five” personality traits, personalities ____.
a. are largely shaped by environmental factors as we age
b. tend to mature rather than be shaped by environmental conditions
c. lose negative attributes as a person reaches self-actualization
d. reach a threshold state and are cemented during middle adulthood

 

 

 

  1. Which personality trait contrasts talkativeness, assertiveness, and activity with silence, passivity, and reserve?
a. extraversion c. conscientiousness
b. openness to experience d. agreeableness

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which personality trait contrasts kindness, trust, and warmth with hostility, selfishness, and distrust?
a. extraversion c. conscientiousness
b. neuroticism d. agreeableness

 

 

 

  1. Which personality trait contrasts kindness, trust, and warmth with hostility, selfishness, and distrust?
a. extraversion c. conscientiousness
b. neuroticism d. agreeableness

 

 

 

  1. Siblings Amanda and Dean could not be any different. Amanda has always had a steady job, pays her bills on time, and has no debt. Dean on the other hand is often unemployed, has bill collectors calling his house, and spends money he doesn’t have. Amanda and Dean differ in which personality trait?
a. conscientiousness c. openness to experience
b. neuroticism d. extraversion

 

 

 

 

  1. Which personality trait contrasts organization, thoroughness, and reliability with carelessness, negligence, and unreliability?
a. openness to experience c. conscientiousness
b. neuroticism d. agreeableness

 

 

 

  1. When a deadline approaches at work, coworkers Tina and Ariel deal with the stress in very different ways. Tina tends to lose her temper more often and feels very nervous. On the other hand, Ariel makes sure to take plenty of deep breaths and drinks herbal tea to calm herself down. These coworkers differ in which personality trait?
a. agreeableness c. conscientiousness
b. extraversion d. neuroticism

 

 

 

 

  1. Which personality trait contrasts nervousness, moodiness, and sensitivity to negative stimuli with coping ability?
a. openness to experience c. conscientiousness
b. neuroticism d. extraversion

 

 

 

  1. Which personality trait contrasts imagination, curiosity, and creativity with shallowness and lack of perceptiveness?
a. openness to experience c. conscientiousness
b. agreeableness d. extraversion

 

 

 

  1. Longitudinal and cross-sectional research has shown that there are some consistent trends of group personality change over the years including ____.
a. increased extraversion c. increased neuroticism
b. decreased conscientiousness d. increased agreeableness

 

 

 

 

  1. What were the findings of a study of more than 2,000 university employees regarding job satisfaction in middle adulthood?
a. Blue collar women reported the highest job satisfaction.
b. White collar women reported the highest job satisfaction.
c. Blue collar men reported the highest job satisfaction.
d. White collar men reported the highest job satisfaction.

 

 

 

 

  1. What problem of the workforce persists for women into middle adulthood?
a. “confidence buster” c. “glass ceiling”
b. “motivational dilemma” d. “pressure cooker”

 

 

 

 

  1. Which person demonstrates typical workforce expectations during middle adulthood?
a. Danika dreams that she will continue to climb the corporate ladder all the way to the rank of CEO.
b. Marc is happy with his position as middle manager, although he once dreamed of being CEO.
c. Steph can finally concentrate on her job as CEO with little outside demands from her family.
d. Jose is happy to show the ropes to the company’s new CEO, who is 20 years his junior.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which scenario illustrates a typical career change of middle adulthood?
a. Polly, a librarian, is looking for a new job as a book editor.
b. Steve, a physical therapist, wants to become an accountant.
c. Mandra, a beautician, is going to school to become a nurse.
d. Durrell has a high stress job on Wall street but wants to pursue sculpting full time.

 

 

 

  1. Compared with young adults, unemployed middle-aged adults have ____.
a. lower physical health c. lower psychological health
b. better physical health d. better psychological health

 

 

 

  1. According to studies, women of which age group are most likely to accept jobs low in pay, as long as they like the work?
a. 16-21 c. 36-49
b. 22-35 d. 50-62

 

 

 

  1. It is most stressful for parents when adolescents ____.
a. lack perspective c. demonstrate independence
b. are co-dependent d. do not exert self-control

 

 

 

 

  1. In Germany, young adults usually leave home ____.
a. prior to marriage c. once married
b. once engaged d. after establishing a family of their own

 

 

 

 

  1. In many traditional societies, it is assumed that when young adult children move out of their parents’ home, the children will ____.
a. eventually ask the parents to move in
b. move back home when they have children of their own
c. assume complete financial responsibility for their parents
d. live nearby rather than in another part of the country

 

 

 

 

  1. In China, Greece, and Poland, having grandchildren is viewed as ____.
a. a minor strain on an existing family
b. an overwhelmingly positive event
c. a necessary progression to sustain the family name
d. an opportunity to mend broken relationships

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a common concern of bisexual or lesbian grandmothers?
a. Are they creating confusion for their grandchildren?
b. Should they disclose their sexual orientation to their grandchildren?
c. Will the grandchildren love them as much as a heterosexual grandparent?
d. Is it acceptable to invite a romantic partner to their grandchildrens’ events?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Forty-five-year old Dawn meets her mother, 72 year old Dolores, for lunch every Monday and Thursday. Ten years ago, Dawn would only see her mother a few times a year despite the fact that the two women lived close by. What is the most likely contributing factor to the close relationships that form between middle-aged adults and their parents?
a. Guilt over past disputes
b. Fear of losing an elderly parent
c. Letting go of past tensions and expectations
d. Shared experiences with the process of aging

 

 

 

  1. The term given to middle-aged people who need to meet the demands of their own children and of aging parents is the ____ generation.
a. weighted c. burdened
b. crushed d. sandwich

 

 

 

  1. In the United States and China, the task of caring for an aging parent usually falls to which middle-aged child?
a. U.S., son; China, daughter c. U.S., daughter; China, son
b. U.S., son; China, son d. U.S., daughter; China, daughter

 

 

 

  1. How do friendships typically change from young to middle adulthood?
a. Family is valued more so than friendships.
b. The number of friends tends to dwindle.
c. Friends typically have fewer shared interests.
d. Men are able to maintain more stable relationships with friends.

 

 

 

  1. In a survey of 1,421 Detroit men ranging in age from 20 to 93, Toni Antonucci and Kira Birditt (2004) found that men without close social ties were significantly more ____ than men with solid relationships.
a. ashamed c. depressed
b. guilt ridden d. anxious

 

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. What are the top five leading causes of death in middle adulthood?

 

 

 

  1. Define the terms crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence and indicate how they change in middle adulthood.

 

 

  1. According to Schaie and colleagues (2004), what six circumstances tend to lessen cognitive decline in advanced late adulthood?

 

 

  1. What are Robert Havighurst’s Developmental Tasks of Middle Adulthood?

 

 

 

  1. According to the life-events approach, list five stressful life challenges and changes of middle adulthood.

 

 

  1. Describe each of the “big five” personality traits.

 

 

  1. Describe the hurdles associated with voluntarily changing careers as a middle-aged adult and the factors that impact the well-being of an unemployed middle-aged adult.

 

 

  1. What is the sandwich generation and how does it impact middle-aged women in the United States?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 9: Late Adulthood

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Both men and women are at risk of osteoporosis, but it poses a greater threat to men.

 

 

  1. Studies which show a relationship between telomere length and the number of cell divisions support the cellular-clock theory of aging.

 

 

 

  1. The normal aging process is characterized by chronic disease and degenerative conditions.

 

 

  1. Americans aged 65 and above are less likely than the general population to live below the poverty level.

 

 

  1. Arthritis is most common in European Americans.

 

 

  1. Older adults generally require less alcohol than younger adults to experience intoxication.

 

 

 

  1. An example of explicit memory is reciting the alphabet.

 

 

 

  1. Older adults are likely to retain their expressive vocabularies but to show a decline in their receptive vocabularies.

 

 

 

  1. The risk of Alzheimer’s disease is 1 in 2 among those 75–84 years old.

 

 

  1. The basic challenge in the crisis of ego integrity versus despair is to maintain the belief that life is meaningful and worthwhile despite physical decline and the inevitability of death.

 

 

  1. As the years wear on in late adulthood, men express less body esteem than older women do.

 

 

  1. Depression affects some 35% of people aged 65 and above.

 

 

  1. According to surveys, older Americans consistently report that they prefer to reside in retirement communities even if they are physically and mentally capable of remaining in their homes.

 

 

  1. Older adults are less likely than younger adults to seek divorce.

 

 

  1. Widowhood in later adulthood increases mortality.

 

 

  1. Phyllis Moen and her colleagues found that when the husband was in charge of a couple’s retirement plans, this control was not related to the partner’s workload or income level.

 

 

  1. According to Kleiber and Kelly, leisure activities often become central to a retiree’s identity and self-acceptance.

 

 

  1. In a national poll of some 1,600 adults by the Los Angeles Times, 25% of older people said they felt younger than their years.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Professor Haskell discusses the concept of an “agequake” during his Life Span and Developmental Psychology course. What is Professor Haskell referring to?
a. Compared with other developed nations, individuals who are 65 and older in America report more stress-related disorders.
b. Americans who are 65 and older influence government policies more than any other age group.
c. Those who are 65 years and above drain more American resources than all other age groups combined.
d. People who are currently age 65 and above are the most rapidly growing segment of the American population.

 

 

 

  1. Today, how many people are over the age of 65?
a. 1 in 25 c. 1 in 8
b. 1 in 12 d. 1 in 5

 

 

 

  1. With the right genes and environment, and with the good fortune to avoid serious injuries or illnesses, people have a maximum life span of about how many years?
a. 100 c. 115
b. 110 d. 120

 

 

 

  1. The amount of time a person can actually be expected to live in a given setting is referred to as ____.
a. life span c. longevity
b. life expectancy d. mortality rate

 

 

 

  1. Compared with 100 years ago, the average life expectancy today for a male has increased by about how many years?
a. 10 c. 30
b. 20 d. 40

 

 

 

  1. What has contributed to increased life expectancy over the last century?
a. Hereditary changes c. Change in climate
b. Natural selection d. Public health measures

 

 

 

  1. Four baby girls are born on the same day, April 21st, 2012, across the globe. Putting genetic differences aside and assuming they remain in their birth country, which baby has the longest life expectancy?
a. Sophia, born in the USA c. Maria, born in Cuba
b. Lea, born in France d. Nami, born in Japan

 

 

 

 

  1. Why is it thought that men have shorter life expectancies than women?
a. Testosterone accelerates the aging process.
b. Men engage in more reckless behaviors.
c. Women experience less stress than men in a lifetime.
d. Estrogen protects women from many forms of cancer.

 

 

 

  1. On the eve of her 65th birthday, Florence is depressed about entering the next stage of her life, later adulthood. As her friend, what can you tell her to cheer her up?
a. Fluid intelligence increases with age.
b. Short term memories remain stable.
c. Older age brings peace and balance.
d. Physical changes are slower than in middle adulthood.

 

 

 

 

  1. Sixty-six-year old Carl applies for a job as the head of the maintenance department at a local factory. Because he has nearly 50 years experience, Carl feels that he is a serious contender for the job. However, he soon finds out from an inside source that he is not in the running for the job because of his age. Carl is the victim of ____.
a. ageism c. maturism
b. elderism d. generism

 

 

 

  1. At a visit to her ophthalmologist, seventy-six-year old Meredith learns that she has cataracts. What does this mean?
a. The photoreceptors in her retina are degenerating.
b. There is a buildup of fluid pressure inside her eyeball.
c. There is a hardening of the lens of her eye.
d. There is a clouding of the lens of her eye.

 

 

 

  1. Ramiro gets a distressing call from his 80 year old mother Adriana; she is upset about a recent diagnosis of glaucoma. What does this mean?
a. The photoreceptors in her retina are degenerating.
b. There is a buildup of fluid pressure inside her eyeball.
c. There is a hardening of the lens of her eye.
d. There is a clouding of the lens of her eye.

 

 

 

  1. Loss of acuteness of hearing due to age-related degenerative changes in the ear is referred to as ____.
a. presbycusis c. Ménière’s disease
b. otosclerosis d. superior canal dehiscence syndrome

 

 

 

  1. Seventy-two-year old Eloise ends up in the emergency room with a hip fracture. After a series of bone scans, Eloise learns that her bones are brittle due to severe loss of calcium. What is Eloise’s diagnosis?
a. osteitis c. osteoporosis
b. dysostosis d. hypochondrogenesis

 

 

 

  1. Sleep apnea may be more than a sleep problem. For reasons that are not entirely clear, it is linked to increased risk of ____.
a. cancer and strokes c. heart attacks and strokes
b. cancer and diabetes d. heart attacks and diabetes

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, what is a source of distress for many older adults who remain sexually active?
a. Believing cultural myths about sex
b. Fearing rejection from new partners
c. Lack of familiarity with contemporary sexual norms
d. Anxiety about trying new things

 

 

 

  1. Many of the physical changes in older women stem from a decline in ___ production.
a. progesterone c. luteinizing hormone
b. estrogen d. follicle stimulating hormone

 

 

 

  1. What is a change in the reproductive system of older women?
a. Dilated vaginal opening c. Loss of ability to orgasm
b. Thickened vaginal wall d. Delayed vaginal lubrication

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a change in the reproductive system of older men?
a. Delayed erections after age 50
b. Sharp decline in testosterone levels after age 60
c. Absence of nocturnal erections after age 70
d. No more sperm production after age 80

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Thornton discovers a gene that he calls AATF-1 (accelerated aging transcription factor-1). When Dr. Thornton deletes this gene in mice, the mice show increased longevity. Thus, he proposes a new model of aging that fits within the ____.
a. evolutionary theories of aging c. homologous theories of aging
b. cellular-damage theories of aging d. programmed theories of aging

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Basso investigates the role of environmental toxins on aging. She discovers that several common food preservatives accelerate the aging process. Dr. Basso proposes a new model of aging that fits within the ____.
a. exogenous theories of aging c. heterologous theories of aging
b. cellular-damage theories of aging d. programmed theories of aging

 

 

 

  1. The hormonal theory of aging asserts that ____.
a. sex hormones accelerate the aging process
b. as we age, less hormones circulate through the blood
c. following illness, stress hormones remain elevated in the elderly
d. our bodies lose sensitivity to hormones as we age

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following lends support to the immunological theory of aging?
a. Antibody production declines with age.
b. White blood cell numbers rise with age.
c. Phagocytosis becomes less effective with age.
d. Autoimmunity becomes more prevalent with age.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which theory of aging that suggests that over time, our bodies become less capable of repairing themselves?
a. restoration-limitation theory c. wear-and-tear theory
b. maximum-capacity theory d. finite-use theory

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Layton investigates the role of free radicals in aging. She hopes to find effective chemicals that will combat free radicals and slow the progression of age-related processes. For what class of chemicals is Dr. Layton searching?
a. antibiotics c. antibodies
b. antigens d. antioxidants

 

 

 

  1. Which theory of aging maintains that the stiffening of body proteins accelerates and eventually breaks down bodily processes, leading to some of the effects of aging?
a. cross-linking theory c. congealed-tissue theory
b. tether-and-hold theory d. cellular-polymerization theory

 

 

 

 

  1. Which hormone is thought to play a crucial role in increasing life span following caloric restriction?
a. cholecystokinin
b. glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide
c. dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
d. antidiuretic hormone

 

 

 

 

  1. People over the age of 65 make up about 12% of the population. What percent of hospital beds do they occupy?
a. 15% c. 35%
b. 25% d. 45%

 

 

 

  1. What is the leading chronic health condition affecting people in late adulthood?
a. diabetes c. hypertension
b. arthritis d. heart disease

 

 

 

  1. Barb is training for her certification in hospice care. She learns that the leading cause of death for women between the ages of 40 and 79, and men between the ages of 60 and 79, is ____.
a. cancer c. stroke
b. heart disease d. chronic respiratory diseases

 

 

 

 

  1. Hazam begins his new employee training at Shady Acres Senior Living Center. During his training, he learns that the number one cause of death among men and women over the age of 80 is ____.
a. cancer c. stroke
b. heart disease d. chronic respiratory diseases

 

 

 

 

  1. As we age, the dysfunction of which organ system increases our risk of cancer?
a. immune c. cardiovascular
b. integumentary d. digestive

 

 

 

 

  1. Many older people are not adequately screened or treated for cancer or heart disease because of ____.
a. lack of health insurance c. misinformation about risks
b. elder bias d. mistrust of physicians

 

 

 

 

  1. A painful, degenerative disease characterized by wear and tear on the joints is referred to as ____.
a. rheumatoid arthritis c. osteoarthritis
b. chondrocytic arthritis d. fibroarthritis

 

 

 

  1. A painful, degenerative disease characterized by chronic inflammation of the membranes that line the joints is referred to as ____.
a. rheumatoid arthritis c. osteoarthritis
b. chondrocytic arthritis d. fibroarthritis

 

 

 

  1. A quarter of a million older adults are hospitalized each year because of adverse drug reactions. What is a common reason for this?
a. Intentional overdose c. Too high of a prescribed dosage
b. Caretaker negligence d. Misappropriation of drugs

 

 

 

 

  1. Gretel’s mother Sylvia lives alone. Now that Sylvia is elderly, Gretel is worried that her mother may suffer serious injury from an accident. According to the text, what can Gretel do to help protect Sylvia?
a. Insist that Sylvia hand over her driver’s license.
b. Sign Sylvia up for a medical alert service.
c. Make sure Sylvia has Internet, land line, and cell phone access.
d. Equip Sylvia’s home with nonskid floors.

 

 

 

 

  1. What type of intelligence is most vulnerable to decline in late adulthood?
a. crystallized c. formulized
b. subjective d. fluid

 

 

 

  1. What is the evidence that visual-recognition memories can last half a century for those in late adulthood?
a. The pulse rate of older adults increased when they were presented with a picture of a “B list” celebrity from their youth nearly 70% of the time.
b. Fifty years after graduating high-school, subjects recognized former classmates 75% of the time.
c. Eye scanning technology detected pupil dilation in older adults 80% of the time when they viewed pictures of former elementary school teachers.
d. When adult men aged 70 and older were presented with images of sports figures from their childhood, EEG recordings showed heightened activity 85% of the time.

 

 

 

  1. Danielle asks her great grandmother Josephine “Can you list the capitals of all 50 states?” Josephine does pretty well and lists 39 capitals correctly. What kind of memory is Josephine demonstrating?
a. implicit c. prospective
b. explicit d. associative

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Devin asks her grandfather Al to count up by 5s. Al quickly starts counting up 5, 10, 15, 20, 25,…etc. What kind of memory is Al demonstrating?
a. implicit c. prospective
b. explicit d. associative

 

 

 

  1. Seventy-six-year old Sonja is thinking about what she will order for lunch as she runs out the door to pick up her friend Suzette. She shouts out to her husband, “Can you please call, um, um…what’s her name… and tell her that I’m running late.” She wanted to say “Suzette” but could not think of her name. Why does this often happen to older adults?
a. Crystallized memory declines.
b. Working memory holds less information simultaneously.
c. There is an inability to easily engage implicit memory.
d. Fluid memory is blocked by working memory.

 

 

 

  1. Compared with younger adults, older adults tend to do as well, or nearly as well, in tasks that assess ____ memory.
a. implicit c. prospective
b. explicit d. associative

 

 

 

  1. Which type of memory would be used to recall that the written letter B has the sound of “bh?”
a. implicit c. prospective
b. explicit d. associative

 

 

 

  1. Research by Melanie Cohn and her colleagues suggests that impairments in associative memory among older adults represent problems in ____.
a. binding and retrieval c. binding and motivation
b. comprehension and retrieval d. comprehension and motivation

 

 

 

 

  1. In the aging brain, atrophy in which brain regions may account for deficits in associative memory?
a. frontal and parietal lobes c. occipital and parietal lobes
b. frontal and temporal lobes d. occipital and temporal lobes

 

 

 

 

  1. Older adults recall events from which decades of life in greatest detail?
a. second and third c. fourth and fifth
b. third and fourth d. fifth and sixth

 

 

 

  1. What is an example of prospective memory?
a. Cheryl thinks about what she needs to buy at the store.
b. Don rehearses his lines for an upcoming play.
c. Edith practices her dance solo for tomorrow’s show.
d. Juan studies National Brands, Inc’s Web site prior to his job interview.

 

 

 

 

  1. Age-related decline in prospective memory tend to be smallest when the task to be completed is ____.
a. ordinary c. repetitive
b. important d. procedural

 

 

 

 

  1. Age-related declines in what two facets make it more difficult for older adults to understand the spoken language?
a. declarative memory and hearing c. working memory and hearing
b. declarative memory and attention d. working memory and attention

 

 

 

  1. In addition to processing speed, what other cognitive tools are required to solve the Duncker candle problem?
a. executive functioning and long-term memory
b. executive functioning and working memory
c. verbal reasoning and long-term memory
d. verbal reasoning and working memory

 

 

 

 

  1. Compared with younger adults, how does an older person typically respond to interpersonal conflict?
a. Shows little patience c. Remains calm
b. Displays anger d. Seeks advice

 

 

 

 

  1. According to Lynn Hasher, what attribute enables older adults to take a broader view of various situations?
a. Increased distractibility c. Increased flexibility
b. Decreased distractibility d. Decreased flexibility

 

 

 

  1. Kunzmann and Baltes noted that wise people approach life ’s problems in a way that addresses ____.
a. simplicity rather than grandeur c. the meaning of life
b. logic and reason d. the most efficient solution

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of dementia?
a. It is part of the normal process of aging.
b. The second most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Although memory declines, other cognitive functions remain intact.
d. Infection is one cause of dementia.

 

 

 

  1. Carol learns that her father Drake has Alzheimer’s disease. She meets with Drake’s neurologist who informs her that ____.
a. the symptoms are irreversible and will become progressively worse
b. the disease is somewhat reversible with aggressive occupational therapy
c. Drake likely inherited a sex-linked mutated gene from his mother’s side
d. the disease is associated with an increased risk of stroke

 

 

 

 

  1. What are generally the earliest signs of Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Inability to recall names or a home address
b. Getting lost in familiar places
c. Confusion, aggression, or agitation
d. Subtle changes in cognition and personality

 

 

 

  1. Scientists believe that memory deficits and other symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease are associated with ____.
a. loss of axonal myelination c. reduction in neuronal size
b. the accumulation of plaques d. an increased white to gray matter ratio

 

 

 

  1. The major psychological challenge of the late adulthood years, according to Erikson, is ____.
a. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus stagnation
b. intimacy versus isolation d. ego integrity versus despair

 

 

 

  1. How does late adulthood differ from the phases of life that come before it?
a. Focus is no longer on growth and stability.
b. All facets of cognition decline.
c. Focus shifts from self to others.
d. Generativity becomes the most important goal.

 

 

 

  1. Compared with younger people, older Americans are generally ____.
a. more anxious c. less happy
b. at least as anxious d. at least as happy

 

 

 

  1. According to Erikson, adjustment in the later years requires ____.
a. preparing future generations c. the wisdom to let go
b. perspective on life events d. modesty and humility

 

 

 

  1. Eighty-nine-year old Jessica establishes college funds for her great-grandchildren, volunteers at a local homeless shelter, and counsels young married couples at her church. Jessica is demonstrating Robert Peck’s developmental task of ____.
a. body differentiation versus work-role preoccupation
b. body transcendence versus body preoccupation
c. ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation
d. ego transcendence versus ego preoccupation

 

 

 

  1. Reminiscence in older adults was once considered a symptom of ____.
a. anxiety c. dementia
b. delusion d. depression

 

 

 

  1. Sarah visits with her ninety-two-year old grandmother Esther one afternoon. Esther tells Sarah story after story about her relationship with her late husband Hal: how they met; the first time they kissed; how he proposed to her; and what their wedding was like. Esther’s reminiscence illustrates ____.
a. life review c. generative storytelling
b. recollective portrayal d. experienced narrative

 

 

 

  1. What is a critique of disengagement theory?
a. Disengagement typically occurs with pathological rather than normal aging.
b. Well-being generally increases when older adults pursue goals.
c. People who were socially isolated as younger adults seek out new relationships in late adulthood.
d. Cognitive decline prevents older adults from inner focus.

 

 

 

 

  1. Cal is an 80-year-old widower who retired from the police force a decade ago. Cal’s daughter notices that he is showing signs of depression and encourages him to join the local Rotary Club. Although reluctant at first, Cal admits to his daughter that it lifted his spirits to join the Rotary Club. Cal’s change in well-being supports which theory?
a. social belongingness theory c. activity theory
b. benevolence theory d. engagement theory

 

 

 

  1. What is the evidence to support the socioemotional selectivity theory?
a. Older subjects correctly identified the emotion behind specific facial expressions more often than younger subjects.
b. When asked to rate their preferences for paintings or literature, older subjects overwhelmingly chose more emotional works than younger subjects.
c. Older subjects asked to read a book showed greater recall for emotional material than younger subjects.
d. Older subjects were more comfortable than younger subjects, as determined by pulse rate and perspiration, when told very emotional and personal stories.

 

 

 

  1. According to Richard Collins and colleagues, during which adult age group is there a dramatic decline in self-esteem?
a. 40-49 c. 60-69
b. 50-59 d. 70-79

 

 

 

  1. Interviews found that independence in what daily task is especially important to help older people avoid diminished self-esteem?
a. walking c. driving
b. toileting d. bathing

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of depression in older adults?
a. Older adults tend to be more forthcoming about psychological problems like depression.
b. It is considered a natural progression of aging.
c. Older adults have higher rates of depression than younger adults.
d. Depression-related suicides are higher among older adults than younger adults.

 

 

 

 

  1. Eighty-one-year old Trudy is encouraged by her daughter Sophie to seek professional help because she has been experiencing feelings of dread and foreboding. What is Trudy experiencing?
a. depression c. generalized anxiety disorder
b. phobic disorder d. panic disorder

 

 

 

 

  1. Seventy-three-year old Carlos developed an extreme fear of the dark. His wife is becoming increasingly frustrated because Carlos insists on sleeping with the lights on. What is Carlos experiencing?
a. depression c. generalized anxiety disorder
b. phobic disorder d. panic disorder

 

 

 

  1. Sixty-nine-year old Elsa experiences extreme anxiety as she prepares dinner for her and her husband after she returns home from work each evening, and cannot figure out the cause. What is Elsa most likely experiencing?
a. depression c. generalized anxiety disorder
b. phobic disorder d. panic disorder

 

 

 

 

  1. Eighty-four-year old Genevieve is experiencing agoraphobia as of late. What is a likely cause of this recent development?
a. She was recently diagnosed with a chronic illness.
b. Her granddaughter, who used to take her shopping, recently moved away.
c. She suddenly developed an intense fear of strangers.
d. As she faces her mortality, she has lost the will to socialize.

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, what is a major challenge that older adults face when relocating to residences for the elderly?
a. Allocating time for themselves c. Integrating new and old friends
b. Maintaining personal space d. Making new friends

 

 

 

  1. Studies have found that religious involvement in late adulthood is usually associated with ____.
a. greater acceptance of mortality c. less depression
b. less chronic health problems d. higher self-esteem

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a central issue couples face in their 60s?
a. Sharing household responsibilities c. Intimacy
b. Financial concerns d. Maintaining independent lives

 

 

 

 

  1. Which scenario represents the most common reason for divorce in a late adulthood, long-term marriage?
a. Allen and Bethany are getting divorced because they grew apart.
b. Michael and Patty are getting divorced because Patty is in love with another man.
c. Rajiv and Padma are getting divorced because they cannot resolve their differences.
d. Harold and Rina are getting divorced because they never got over the death of their son.

 

 

 

  1. Who is likely to have the most difficult time coping with the death of his wife?
a. Fifty-year old Andrew c. Sixty-five year old Clarence
b. Sixty-year old Hossein d. Seventy-year old Jonah

 

 

 

  1. Eighty-three-year old Melinda recently lost her husband of sixty years to cancer. Assuming the following people all live close to Melinda, who is most likely to replace Melinda’s husband as her confidant?
a. daughter Shirley c. friend Louisa
b. sister Anette d. pastor Mother Abel

 

 

 

  1. How do most couples go about planning for their retirement?
a. Collaboratively, but with the man being in more control of the plans
b. Collaboratively, but with the woman being in more control of the plans
c. Independently, but with the man providing more input for the plans
d. Independently, but with the woman providing more input for the plans

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the research of Pinquart and Schindler, which group of people shows the most satisfaction with retirement?
a. Older adults who retired at typical retirement age and maintained work-related activities.
b. Older adults who retired later than average and maintained leisure activities.
c. Older adults who retired at typical retirement age and maintained leisure activities.
d. Older adults who retired later than average and maintained work-related activities.

 

 

 

  1. A year after retirement, most retirees report increased feelings of ____.
a. well-being c. isolation
b. purpose d. boredom

 

 

 

 

  1. According to a British study, the key motives for leisure activity during retirement were ____.
a. reaching a state of enlightenment and self-actualization
b. reconnecting with loved ones and friends
c. mental stimulation and challenge
d. pleasure and relaxation.

 

 

 

  1. Successful aging involves determining the best fit between person and environment within the scope of physical, cognitive, and social changes of late adulthood. This point of view is referred to as ____.
a. selective optimization with compensation
b. specific attention to realistic life expectations
c. refinement of lifetime goals with reparations
d. finding satisfaction with the aging self

 

 

 

  1. According to Baltes and Carstensen, which older adult embodies the spirit of selective optimization with compensation?
a. Joan works hard to maintain the many friendships that she has made over the last several decades.
b. Albert attempts to connect with several long last family members despite having little in common with them.
c. Maya decides to put aside her work at her community theater and to devote all of her attention to writing her memoirs.
d. Ainsley does not want to disappoint his wife so, despite having reservations, he opens a small mom-and-pop cafe with her.

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, what is a critique of the stereotype that retirees look forward to late adulthood as a time when they can rest from life’s challenges?
a. Seniors are not immune to today’s economic challenges.
b. This is a prescription for depression, not for living life to its fullest.
c. The stress and pain associated with age-related chronic illness prevents relaxation.
d. To assume rest is their top priority belittles the achievements of seniors.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. What four items does the U.S. Surgeon General recommend to prevent osteoporosis and promote bone health?

 

 

  1. Describe the two broad categories of the theories of aging.

 

 

  1. How do normal aging and pathological aging differ from one another?

 

 

  1. About a quarter of a million older adults are hospitalized each year because of adverse drug reactions. What are the three main reasons for these hospitalizations?

 

 

  1. Describe the study of Harry Bahrick and colleagues analyzing the long-term memories of high-school graduates 1 to 50 years post graduation?

 

 

 

  1. List the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease, starting with the first symptoms to appear and then progressing towards the later stages.

 

 

  1. What are Robert Peck’s three developmental tasks?

 

 

  1. How does the disengagement theory of aging differ from the activity theory of aging?

 

 

  1. Pinquart and Schindler (2007) found that retirees could be divided into three groups according to their satisfaction with retirement and various other factors. Describe these three groups.

 

  1. Based on the work of Hansen and colleagues, describe the three factors of leisure activities for retirees.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 10: Life’s Final Chapter

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Death is a part of life.

 

 

  1. In most states, a person is considered legally dead if his/her heart and lungs cease to function.

 

 

  1. Today, about half of the deaths that occur in the United States take place in hospitals.

 

 

 

  1. The number of patients receiving hospice care has gradually declined over the last decade.

 

 

 

  1. Terminal sedation is used to hasten a peaceful death of the terminally ill.

 

 

  1. In middle adulthood, heart disease and cancer are the leading causes of death.

 

 

  1. Mourning is synonymous with grief over the death of a person, but also describes culturally prescribed ways of displaying grief.

 

 

  1. In most European countries, Roman Catholics visit cemeteries in an attempt to communicate with the souls of the dead, build altars, and offer food and drink.

 

 

  1. The grieving process requires that one withdraw from his/her normal activities for an undetermined period of time.

 

 

  1. The poem “Thanatopsis,” by William Cullen Bryant, expresses Erik Erikson’s goal of ego integrity—optimism that we can maintain a sense of trust through life.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The term dying is best described as ____.
a. the irreversible cessation of vital life functions
b. the end stage of life, in which bodily processes decline, leading to death
c. starting with the confirmed diagnosis of terminal illness or irreversible decline in organ function
d. point at which consciousness cannot be regained

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What do medical authorities generally use as the basis for determining that a person has died?
a. brain death
b. stoppage of the heart
c. both brain death and stoppage of the heart
d. either brain death or stoppage of the heart

 

 

 

 

  1. After receiving an urgent call from his father about an automobile accident involving his mother, Peter races to the hospital. He learns from the hospital staff that his mother is brain dead. The emergency room physician explains to Peter that his mother ____.
a. has a 50% chance of making a full recovery depending on the success of upcoming surgeries and physical therapy
b. requires a respirator because there was selective damage to her brain stem
c. suffered irreversible damage to her cerebral cortex and will not regain consciousness
d. can hear his voice and knows that Peter and his father are with her

 

 

 

 

  1. After receiving an urgent call from his father about an automobile accident involving his mother, Peter races to the hospital. He learns from the hospital staff that his mother is brain dead. Peter wants confirmation from the emergency room doctors, who show Peter the results of her ____.
a. EEG recording
b. MRI scan
c. CT scan
d. PET scan

 

 

 

  1. While at the hospital attending to his mother, Peter meets a woman named Lea, whose father was diagnosed with whole brain death following cardiac arrest. She explains to Peter that her father requires a respirator ____.
a. because he suffered irreversible damage to his brain stem
b. because his heart is too weak to supply blood to the brain
c. to stimulate contractions of the heart muscle
d. because his cerebral cortex cannot coordinate respiratory and cardiovascular functions

 

 

 

  1. According to Kübler-Ross, the five stages of dying are: denial; anger, bargaining, depression, and ____.
a. contentment c. making amends
b. saying good-bye d. final acceptance

 

 

 

  1. Fifty-one-year old Paulette recently learned that she has terminal stage IV pancreatic cancer. She calls the doctor’s office repeatedly and demands that she be tested again because she is sure they made a mistake. According to Kübler-Ross, Paulette is displaying signs of which stage of dying?
a. denial c. bargaining
b. anger d. depression

 

 

  1. Forty-six-year old Nathan recently learned that he has terminal advanced stage lung cancer. He finds himself thinking throughout the day, “Why me? It isn’t fair. I was supposed to live to 90.” According to Kübler-Ross, Nathan is displaying signs of which stage of dying?
a. denial c. bargaining
b. anger d. depression

 

 

 

 

  1. Fifty-five-year old Bernice recently learned that he has terminal melanoma with brain metastasis. Although she is not very religions, she finds herself praying out loud, “Please God, give me at least one more year, I want to see my daughter graduate from college.” According to Kübler-Ross, Bernice is displaying signs of which stage of dying?
a. denial c. bargaining
b. anger d. depression

 

 

 

  1. Sixty-nine-year old Jacob recently learned that he has advanced stage terminal non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. He spends most of his time thinking about his family – about how his kids won’t have a father and whether his wife will remarry. According to Kübler-Ross, Jacob is displaying signs of which stage of dying?
a. denial c. bargaining
b. anger d. depression

 

 

 

  1. What is a critique of Kübler-Ross’s five stages of dying?
a. They are based on the clinical stages of dying.
b. They ignore the emotional needs of those who are terminally ill.
c. They are most relevant for those suffering from a terminal illness.
d. They do not adequately address situations pertaining to terminal illness.

 

 

 

  1. An organization that treats dying patients by focusing on palliative care rather than curative treatment is referred to as ____.
a. a hospital auxiliary c. a nursing home
b. an assisted living community d. hospice

 

 

 

  1. Why may individuals facing death choose a hospital setting during the process of dying?
a. It provides the best resources for pain management.
b. People remain hopeful that they can avert death.
c. Most homes are not equipped with the appropriate medical equipment.
d. The emotional pain of dying is mitigated in a clinical setting.

 

 

 

 

  1. What type of care does hospice primarily provide?
a. curative c. palliative
b. rehabilitative d. spiritual

 

 

 

  1. Where does most hospice care take place?
a. nursing home c. hospice center
b. hospital d. patient’s home

 

 

 

  1. How does hospice care differ from hospital care for a dying patient?
a. The family is in charge of making many decisions for the patient.
b. The focus is on the patient and the family.
c. Physicians are not part of the hospice team.
d. The focus is on psychological well-being not pain management.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Min’s great-aunt Li is in the final stages of life following a brief battle with pancreatic cancer. Min’s mother calls to tell him that hospice is attending to Aunt Li and that he should visit immediately. Min is unsure of how to act when he sees his aunt. As a hospice worker, what advice can you give to Min?
a. Avoid the use of humor, this will trivialize her suffering.
b. Do not talk about upcoming events in your life, this will cause her too much pain.
c. If Aunt Li starts to talk about her passing, quickly change the subject to cheer her up.
d. Crouch down next to Aunt Li’s face and hold her hand; this will comfort her.

 

 

 

 

  1. The word euthanasia literally means ____.
a. “life beyond” c. “mercy killing”
b. “peaceful passing” d. “good death”

 

 

 

  1. Eighty-three-year old Matilda has advanced stage breast cancer that has spread to her bone, causing tremendous pain. Matilda feels that the pain is almost too much to bear and discusses with her husband the possibility of quickly and painlessly ending her life with his assistance. The term used to describe Matilda’s request is ____.
a. expiration with dignity c. voluntary active euthanasia
b. death by choice d. assisted life termination

 

 

 

  1. The best-known cases of physician-assisted suicides have involved a retired pathologist dubbed “Dr. Death” by the press for having assisted in more than 35 patient suicides. What is the name of this doctor?
a. Dr. Sears c. Dr. Bowlby
b. Dr. Kevorkian d. Dr. Jacobs

 

 

 

  1. Following cardiac arrest, Bob’s 86-year-old wife Cynthia remains comatose and shows no brain activity. Bob feels strongly that Cynthia would not want to remain in a “lifeless” body; he searches the Internet to find out what type of drug overdose will cause her to slip into a quiet, peaceful death. What type of euthanasia is Bob contemplating?
a. involuntary active euthanasia c. submissive euthanasia
b. forcible active euthanasia d. passive euthanasia

 

 

 

  1. What is the Death With Dignity Act?
a. Physicians are allowed to prescribe and administer lethal doses of medications to terminally ill patients.
b. Terminally ill patients can get a prescription for lethal doses of medication, which they then administer themselves.
c. If and only in the event that pain medications are ineffective, physicians are allowed to prescribe and administer lethal doses of medications to terminally ill patients.
d. If and only in the event that pain medications are ineffective, terminally ill patients can get a prescription for lethal doses of medication, which they then administer themselves.

 

 

 

 

  1. What percent of American physicians are opposed to physician-assisted suicide?
a. 27% c. 69%
b. 48% d. 90%

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is true of terminally ill patients’ attitudes toward physician-assisted suicide?
a. The majority of patients say that they support physician-assisted suicide in general.
b. A small majority of patients have seriously considered physician-assisted suicides for themselves.
c. Patients 65 or older are more likely to have seriously contemplated physician-assisted suicide.
d. Those who had around-the-clock care were less likely to considered physician-assisted suicide.

 

 

 

  1. Following cardiac arrest, Bob’s 86-year-old wife Cynthia remains comatose and shows no signs of brain activity. Bob feels strongly that Cynthia would not want to remain in a “lifeless” body, so he discusses with her doctors the possibility of removing her from life support. What type of euthanasia is Bob contemplating?
a. involuntary active euthanasia c. submissive euthanasia
b. forcible active euthanasia d. passive euthanasia

 

 

 

 

  1. A document prepared when a person is well, directing medical-care providers to terminate life-sustaining treatment in the event that the person becomes incapacitated and unable to speak, is referred to as a ____.
a. living will c. medical proclamation document
b. resuscitation rejection order d. personal health plan

 

 

 

  1. Three-year-old Sasha’s grandmother passed away recently. Given her age, which statement is Sasha likely to make regarding her grandmother’s death?
a. “Why isn’t Nana coming back?”
b. “When will Nana be back from vacation?”
c. “Did Nana die because I was bad?”
d. “Will I die someday?”

 

 

 

 

  1. Seven-year-old Mark lost his father to cancer. His mother Liza isn’t sure how to help Mark cope or what to expect from him. As a bereavement counselor, what do you tell Liza?
a. Even if he is frightened, it is important for Mark to attend the funeral and burial of his father.
b. Don’t be blunt; instead, use gentle euphemisms about death like, “Daddy is sleeping peacefully.”
c. Understand that prolonged loss of sleep or appetite are a normal part of the grieving process for children.
d. Respond to Mark’s questions as openly and honestly as possible.

 

 

 

  1. How does the shift from childhood to adolescence change our experiences with and behaviors surrounding death?
a. Adolescent no longer construct magical, spiritual, or pseudoscientific theories as to how some form of life or thought might survive.
b. Adolescents become increasingly exposed to death and are more likely to attend funerals.
c. Risk taking behaviors begin to drop off substantially out of fear of death.
d. In general, adolescents are less fearful of death than children.

 

 

 

  1. What is the leading cause of death in early adulthood?
a. cancer c. suicide
b. accidents d. homicide

 

 

 

  1. What is the leading cause of death for individuals 85 and older?
a. heart disease c. chronic respiratory disease
b. cancer d. stroke

 

 

 

  1. When an individual dies, a coroner is needed only if ____.
a. foul play is suspected
b. the cause of death cannot be readily determined
c. the deceased individual is less than 50 years of age
d. the death occurred at a private residence

 

 

 

  1. Funerals are usually a families’ ____ largest expense.
a. second c. sixth
b. fourth d. eight

 

 

 

  1. A state of intense grief following the loss of a loved one is referred to as ____.
a. mourning c. bereavement
b. sorrow d. anguish

 

 

 

  1. A period of time after the death of a loved one during which a person expresses grief and may follow rituals such as the wearing of black clothing is referred to as ____.
a. mourning c. bereavement
b. woefulness d. anguish

 

 

 

  1. On a recent trip to Mexico, Lorenzo learns of a holiday to honor the dead. As part of the holiday Mexicans visit cemeteries in an attempt to communicate with the souls of the dead, offering food, drink and photographs to encourage the souls to visit. What is the holiday called?
a. All Saints Day c. All Hallows’ Eve
b. Day of the Dead d. The Dearly Departed

 

 

 

 

  1. In Japan, how do Buddhists celebrate the Bon Festival to honor the departed spirits of their ancestors?
a. praying in solace c. donating to charity
b. visiting with family d. fasting

 

 

 

 

  1. In Korea, how is the holiday of Chuseok celebrated?
a. dressing up as the deceased c. donating to charity
b. visiting with family d. visiting shrines and bringing offerings

 

 

 

  1. When do the Chinese believe that the spirits of the dead visit Earth from the underworld?
a. Easter c. Ghost Month
b. Chinese New Year d. Day of the Dead

 

 

 

  1. Vince tells his classmates how his relatives in the Philippines honor the dead. He mentions that during the holiday of Araw ng mga Patay, his relatives ____.
a. camp out near grave sites c. wear the clothing of the dead
b. act out plays honoring the dead d. meditate in silence

 

 

 

  1. One description of the stages of grief for coping with bereavement is as follows: shock–numbness, yearning–searching, disorganization–despair, and reorganization. Who proposed these?
a. Bowlby c. Maciejewski
b. Kevorkian d. Jacobs

 

 

 

  1. One description of the stages of grief for coping with bereavement is as follows:: numbness–disbelief, separation distress (yearning–anger–anxiety), depression–mourning, and recovery. Who proposed these?
a. Bowlby c. Maciejewski
b. Kevorkian d. Jacobs

 

 

 

 

  1. What were Maciejewski and colleagues assessment of Jacobs’ stages of grief?
a. Yearning never went away but persisted in varying degrees for a lifetime.
b. Acceptance of the death of a loved one occurred prior to depression.
c. Yearning, anger, and depression rose suddenly in the predicted order.
d. Disbelief was highest just after the death of a loved one and quickly waned within months.

 

 

 

  1. Sal lost his wife a month ago. He confides in his best friend Artie that he isn’t sure he’ll ever get over the loss of his wife. As an expert in the bereavement process, what would you tell Sal?
a. Try to spend sometime away from others to clear your thoughts.
b. Wake up each morning and say, “My wife would want me to move on.”
c. Join a bereavement support group to share your experiences.
d. Don’t be embarrassed to ask your primary care physician for sedatives to help you cope.

 

 

 

  1. Sal lost his wife a month ago. He confides in his best friend Artie that he isn’t sure he’ll ever get over the loss of his wife. Artie wants to help is friend but isn’t sure what to do. As an expert in the bereavement process, what would you tell Artie?
a. Try to get Sal to open up about his wife even if he is hesitant.
b. Do not mention Sal’s wife, it is best to talk about neutral subjects.
c. Don’t minimize the loss and avoid cliches like, “She’s in a better place.”
d. Take the lead from Sal, if he doesn’t call he wants to be alone for awhile.

 

 

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. According to Kübler-Ross, what are the five stages of dying?

 

 

  1. According to the text, what are some things you can do to support a person who is dying?

 

 

  1. How can you help a child cope with grief?

 

 

  1. What are the guidelines for arranging a funeral that meets your needs and remains in your budget?

 

 

  1. Describe a cultural holiday or festival that celebrates and honors deceased ancestors.

 

 

  1. What are Bowlby’s and Jacob’s stages of grief for coping with bereavement?

 

 

  1. What can you do if you are faced with the death of someone who is close to you?

 

 

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